1. Consider the following statements regarding abetment under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:
1. A person may abet a thing by instigation, conspiracy accompanied by an act or illegal omission, or intentional aid.
2. To constitute abetment, it is always necessary that the act abetted must actually be committed.
3. Abetment of an illegal omission may amount to an offence even where the abettor himself is not bound to do that act.
4. The person abetted need not necessarily be capable by law of committing the offence.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. With reference to abetment having extra-territorial elements under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, consider the following statements:
1. A person in India who abets the commission of an act outside India may be liable if the act would be an offence if committed in India.
2. A person outside India who abets the commission of an act in India may be liable if the act would constitute an offence in India.
3. Liability for abetment outside India for an offence in India arises only when the abettor is an Indian citizen.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
3. A instigates B to resist, by force, a lawful distress being made by a public servant. B resists the distress and, while doing so, voluntarily causes grievous hurt to the officer. A knew that B was likely to cause such grievous hurt while resisting the distress. In this context, consider the following statements:
1. A may be liable not merely for abetment of resistance but also for the distinct offence caused as a probable consequence.
2. Where the additional act constitutes a distinct offence and the abettor knew it was likely, cumulative punishment may follow.
3. Whenever the person abetted commits any additional offence, the abettor is liable for it even if it was wholly independent and not a probable consequence.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
4. Consider the following statements under BNS provisions dealing with punishment for abetment where the offence is not committed:
1. If the abetted offence is punishable with death or imprisonment for life and is not committed, the abettor may be punished up to seven years and fine, where no express provision exists.
2. If hurt is caused in consequence of such abetment, the punishment may extend up to fourteen years and fine.
3. If an offence punishable with imprisonment is abetted but not committed, punishment may extend to one-fourth of the longest term, and where the abettor or person abetted is a public servant duty-bound to prevent the offence, it may extend to one-half.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
5. Consider the following statements relating to concealment of design, criminal conspiracy and attempt under the BNS:
1. Concealment of a design to commit an offence punishable with death or imprisonment for life may include concealment through encryption or any other information-hiding tool.
2. For every criminal conspiracy, an overt act beyond the agreement is mandatory, even where the agreement itself is to commit an offence.
3. An attempt requires an act towards the commission of the offence and is not satisfied by mere intention without movement towards commission.
4. Concealment of a design to commit an offence punishable with imprisonment attracts different limits depending on whether the offence is committed or not.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
6. Under BNSS provisions relating to assistance to Magistrates and police, consider the following statements:
1. Police officers superior in rank to an officer in charge of a police station may exercise the same powers throughout the local area to which they are appointed.
2. Every person is bound to assist a Magistrate or police officer reasonably demanding aid in preventing the escape of a person lawfully arrestable.
3. A person other than a police officer, to whom a warrant is directed, cannot receive aid from any other person in executing the warrant.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
7. X is suspected of committing a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment up to five years. The police officer arrests X merely on the basis of credible information, without recording reasons showing necessity of arrest. Which of the following is legally most accurate under BNSS?
(A) The arrest is valid merely because the offence is cognizable.
(B) The arrest is valid because offences up to seven years do not require recording of reasons.
(C) For such offences, the officer must have reason to believe commission of the offence and must record why arrest is necessary for statutory purposes.
(D) The police must always arrest first and issue notice only after arrest.
8. Consider the following statements regarding safeguards at the time of arrest under BNSS:
1. In an offence punishable with imprisonment of less than three years, no arrest shall be made without prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police if the person is infirm or above sixty years of age.
2. The memorandum of arrest must be attested by at least one witness and countersigned by the arrested person.
3. An arrested person is entitled to meet an advocate of his choice during interrogation, though not throughout interrogation.
4. Information about arrested persons is not required to be displayed digitally.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 only
9. A private person sees P committing a non-bailable and cognizable offence in his presence and arrests P. Consider the following statements under BNSS:
1. P must be made over to a police officer, or taken to the nearest police station, without unnecessary delay and within six hours.
2. A private person may detain P at his own residence until the next morning if the offence appears serious.
3. A Magistrate may arrest or order arrest of a person who commits an offence in his presence within his local jurisdiction.
4. Handcuffing is permissible merely because an offence is non-bailable.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 3 and 4 only
10. Consider the following statements relating to the manner and consequences of arrest under BNSS:
1. A police officer authorised to arrest without warrant may pursue such person into any place in India.
2. An arrested person shall not be subjected to more restraint than is necessary to prevent escape.
3. A person arrested without warrant must be informed of full particulars of the offence or other grounds of arrest.
4. A woman can never be arrested after sunset and before sunrise under any circumstance.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
11. Consider the following statements under BNSS provisions from search, medical examination and detention after arrest:
1. Where an arrested person is searched, a receipt showing articles taken in possession must be given.
2. If examination of the arrested person is necessary to afford evidence of the commission of an offence, reasonable force may be used for such examination.
3. A person arrested without warrant may be detained for twenty-four hours including the time necessary for journey to the Magistrate’s Court.
4. A person arrested by a police officer cannot be discharged except on bond, bail bond, or special order of a Magistrate.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
12. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List I List II
A. Admission defined 1. Section 15 BSA
B. Admission by party or authorised agent 2. Section 16 BSA
C. Admission by person whose position or
liability must be proved 3. Section 17 BSA
D. Admission by person expressly referred
to by party 4. Section 18 BSA
Code:
(A) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(B) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(C) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(D) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
13. Consider the following statements regarding admissions under the BSA:
1. Admissions are generally relevant against the maker, but cannot ordinarily be proved by or on behalf of the maker.
2. Oral admissions as to contents of documents are relevant only where secondary evidence may be given, or where the genuineness of the produced document is in question.
3. In civil cases, an admission made on an express condition that evidence of it shall not be given is not relevant.
4. An admission in a civil case made during compromise negotiations is always relevant, irrespective of the condition attached to it.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
14. X, while in police custody, states to the police: “I killed Y and hid the knife under the mango tree.” The police recover the knife from that place. Consider the following statements under BSA:
1. The confession “I killed Y” made to the police officer cannot be proved against X merely as a confession.
2. A confession made while in police custody may be proved if made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate.
3. So much of the information as distinctly relates to the fact discovered may be proved, whether it amounts to a confession or not.
4. A confession otherwise relevant becomes irrelevant merely because it was made in answer to questions which the accused need not have answered.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
15. Consider the following statements regarding proved confession affecting co-accused and admissions under BSA:
1. Where more persons than one are jointly tried for the same offence, a proved confession by one affecting himself and another may be taken into consideration against both.
2. For this purpose, “offence” includes abetment of, or attempt to commit, the offence.
3. A trial held in the absence of an absconding accused who fails to comply with proclamation under BNSS may be deemed a joint trial for this provision.
4. Admissions are conclusive proof of the matters admitted and cannot merely operate as estoppel.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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PART II: GENERAL STUDIES + CPC
Questions 16–30
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HISTORY: INDUS VALLEY CIVILISATION
16. Which of the following features of the Indus Valley Civilisation most strongly indicates a highly organised civic administration rather than merely advanced private construction?
(A) Use of burnt bricks in residential houses
(B) Standardised drainage system connected with houses and streets
(C) Presence of terracotta figurines in several sites
(D) Use of copper and bronze implements
17. A site yields evidence of a large dockyard-like structure, bead-making industry, and trade links with Mesopotamia. Which site is most likely being referred to?
(A) Kalibangan
(B) Lothal
(C) Dholavira
(D) Banawali
18. Which of the following statements about Harappan script is most accurate?
(A) It has been fully deciphered and is written only from left to right
(B) It was mostly written on palm leaves and long inscriptions are common
(C) It remains undeciphered and is generally found in short inscriptions
(D) It was written exclusively in Sanskrit using Brahmi characters
19. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
(A) Kalibangan — Evidence of ploughed field
(B) Dholavira — Water conservation system
(C) Mohenjo-daro — Great Bath
(D) Chanhudaro — Fire altars
20. The absence of large temples and royal palaces in major Harappan cities is often used to suggest that:
(A) Harappans had no religion or belief system
(B) Harappan society may not have been dominated by monumental kingship like Egypt or Mesopotamia
(C) Harappan cities were constructed only for military purposes
(D) Harappans were completely egalitarian with no social differences
NUMERACY: HCF AND LCM
21. The HCF of two numbers is 18 and their LCM is 432. If one number is 72, what is the other number?
(A) 54
(B) 96
(C) 108
(D) 144
22. Three bells ring at intervals of 12 minutes, 18 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. If they ring together at 8:00 AM, when will they next ring together?
(A) 9:00 AM
(B) 9:30 AM
(C) 10:00 AM
(D) 10:30 AM
23. The least number which when divided by 16, 24, 36 and 48 leaves a remainder of 7 in each case is:
(A) 151
(B) 139
(C) 127
(D) 115
24. The product of two numbers is 2160 and their HCF is 12. If one number is 48, then their LCM is:
(A) 45
(B) 90
(C) 180
(D) 360
25. The greatest number which divides 203, 434 and 667 leaving the same remainder in each case is:
(A) 21
(B) 28
(C) 77
(D) 91
CPC: PLEADINGS, PLAINT, WRITTEN STATEMENT, SET-OFF, COUNTER-CLAIM, AMENDMENT
26. Under the CPC, pleadings generally mean:
(A) Plaint and written statement
(B) Plaint, affidavit and judgment
(C) Written statement, decree and order
(D) Petition, evidence and final arguments
27. A defendant seeks to claim a legally recoverable ascertained sum of money from the plaintiff in the same suit, and the claim arises out of a separate transaction. If it satisfies the statutory conditions, this is best described as:
(A) Counter-claim
(B) Legal set-off
(C) Equitable defence
(D) Amendment of plaint
28. A counter-claim under Order VIII CPC is treated substantially as:
(A) A mere defence with no independent effect
(B) A cross-suit enabling the court to pronounce final judgment on both original claim and counter-claim
(C) An oral objection which cannot result in a decree
(D) A claim available only in suits for injunction
29. A plaint may be rejected under Order VII Rule 11 CPC where:
(A) The defendant denies all allegations in the written statement
(B) The plaintiff fails to produce oral evidence on the first date
(C) The plaint does not disclose a cause of action
(D) The suit involves complicated questions of law
30. After commencement of trial, amendment of pleadings is generally permitted only when:
(A) The amendment changes the entire nature of the case
(B) The court is satisfied that despite due diligence, the party could not have raised the matter before commencement of trial
(C) The opposite party does not file any written objection
(D) The amendment introduces a completely time-barred claim as a matter of right
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ANSWER KEY WITH ONE-LINE EXPLANATIONS
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1. B — Abetment does not require actual commission; illegal omission and incapacity of the abetted person do not defeat liability.
2. C — BNS covers abetment in India of offences outside India and abetment outside India for offences in India.
3. A — Liability extends to probable consequences and cumulative punishment where the distinct offence was known as likely.
4. D — All three statements correctly capture BNS provisions on punishment for abetment where offence is not committed.
5. B — Overt act is not required where the agreement itself is to commit an offence.
6. A — Superior police powers and public assistance are covered; aid to a non-police warrant executor is not barred.
7. C — For offences up to seven years, necessity of arrest and written reasons are statutory safeguards.
8. D — Display can be digital; statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
9. B — Private arrest must be promptly handed over within six hours; Magistrate’s arrest power also exists.
10. C — Arrest of women after sunset is barred save exceptional circumstances with required permission.
11. A — The twenty-four-hour rule excludes journey time and is subject to special Magistrate order.
12. D — The matching corresponds to BSA Sections 15, 16, 17 and 18.
13. B — Statement 4 is overbroad; confidential civil admissions may be excluded.
14. C — Police confession is barred, but discovery-related information may be proved.
15. A — Admissions are not conclusive proof; they may operate as estoppel.
16. B — A standardised drainage system indicates planned civic administration.
17. B — Lothal is associated with dockyard-like structure, bead-making and maritime trade.
18. C — Harappan script remains undeciphered and inscriptions are usually short.
19. D — Fire altars are associated with Kalibangan, not Chanhudaro.
20. B — Lack of palaces and huge temples suggests absence of visible monumental kingship.
21. C — Product of numbers = HCF × LCM = 18 × 432; other number = 7776 ÷ 72 = 108.
22. B — LCM of 12, 18 and 30 is 90 minutes, so next ringing is at 9:30 AM.
23. A — LCM of 16, 24, 36 and 48 is 144; required number = 144 + 7 = 151.
24. C — LCM = Product ÷ HCF = 2160 ÷ 12 = 180.
25. C — Required number divides differences 231, 233 and 464; HCF is 77.
26. A — Order VI Rule 1 CPC defines pleadings as plaint and written statement.
27. B — Legal set-off concerns an ascertained sum recoverable by defendant from plaintiff.
28. B — A counter-claim is treated like a cross-suit and may result in a decree.
29. C — Under Order VII Rule 11, plaint can be rejected if it discloses no cause of action.
30. B — Post-trial amendment requires satisfaction of the due diligence test.
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- Interview Sessions- 5.
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