1. Consider the following statements regarding instigation and intentional aid under the BNS:
Wilful misrepresentation may amount to instigation if it voluntarily causes or procures the doing of a thing.
Wilful concealment of a material fact may amount to instigation only where the person is bound to disclose that fact.
A person intentionally aids an act if, before or at the time of commission, he does anything to facilitate the commission and thereby facilitates it.
Mere silence about any fact, without any duty to disclose, always amounts to abetment by instigation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 only
2. A instigates B to commit theft in Z’s house. A remains present outside the house to keep watch while B enters and commits the theft. If A would have been punishable as an abettor had he been absent, which of the following statements is/are correct?
A may be deemed to have committed the offence itself.
A’s liability remains only for abetment because he did not enter the house.
Presence at the time of commission may alter the legal consequence of abetment.
The rule applies even where no act or offence is committed in consequence of the abetment.
Select the correct answer:
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 only
3. A police officer, legally bound to prevent robbery, comes to know that B has planned a robbery. To help B, he deliberately suppresses the information. Consider the following statements:
If the robbery is committed, punishment may extend to one-half of the longest term provided for that offence.
If the robbery is not committed, punishment may extend to one-fourth of the longest term provided for that offence.
If the concealed design relates to an offence punishable with death or life imprisonment, a higher punishment may follow.
Concealment may be by act, omission, encryption, or any other information-hiding tool.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. X knows that Y intends to commit an offence punishable with imprisonment. X is not a public servant. To facilitate the offence, X falsely tells the police that Y has left the city. The offence is thereafter committed. Consider the following statements:
X may be liable for concealment of design to commit an offence punishable with imprisonment.
If the offence is committed, punishment may extend to one-fourth of the longest term of imprisonment provided for that offence.
If the offence is not committed, punishment may extend to one-eighth of the longest term of imprisonment provided for that offence.
This provision applies only where the concealed offence is punishable with death or imprisonment for life.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
5. With reference to criminal conspiracy and attempt under the BNS, consider the following statements:
An agreement to do an illegal act may amount to criminal conspiracy.
It is immaterial whether the illegal act is the ultimate object of the agreement or merely incidental to that object.
A conspiracy to commit an offence punishable with rigorous imprisonment of one year is always punished in the same manner as abetment of that offence.
A person who breaks open an empty box believing jewels to be inside may still be guilty of attempt.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
6. Consider the following statements under BNSS provisions relating to superior police officers and execution of warrants:
Police officers superior in rank to an officer in charge of a police station may exercise the same powers throughout their appointed local area.
Where a warrant is directed to a person other than a police officer, another person may aid execution if the person to whom the warrant is directed is near at hand and acting in execution of the warrant.
Aid to a non-police warrant executor may be given even when the person to whom the warrant is directed is absent.
A superior police officer can exercise the powers of an officer in charge only after a special order of the Magistrate in each case.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 only
7. With reference to arrest without warrant under BNSS, consider the following statements:
Where credible information relates to a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment exceeding seven years or death, arrest may be made if the police officer has reason to believe commission of the offence.
A person found in possession of property reasonably suspected to be stolen, and reasonably suspected of committing an offence relating to it, may be arrested without warrant.
A person reasonably suspected of being a deserter from the Armed Forces of the Union may be arrested without warrant.
A requisition from another police officer is sufficient even if it does not specify the person to be arrested or the cause of arrest.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
8. A police officer issues notice to X instead of arresting him in a cognizable offence where arrest is not required. X complies with the notice for several days but later refuses to identify himself. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Where arrest is not required, notice to appear may be issued.
If the person complies and continues to comply, he shall not be arrested unless reasons are recorded.
Failure to comply with notice or unwillingness to identify himself may justify arrest, subject to competent court orders.
Notice can be issued only in bailable offences.
Select the correct answer:
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 only
9. Consider the following statements regarding procedure of arrest and designated police officer under BNSS:
Every police officer making arrest must bear accurate, visible and clear identification of his name.
The memorandum of arrest must be attested by at least one witness and countersigned by the arrested person.
If the memorandum is not attested by a family member, the arrested person must be informed of his right to have a relative, friend or nominated person informed.
Information of arrested persons is required to be maintained only at the State control room, not at police station or district level.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
10. Consider the following statements regarding communication after arrest under BNSS:
A person arrested without warrant must be informed forthwith of the full particulars of the offence or other grounds of arrest.
Where a person arrested without warrant is not accused of a non-bailable offence, he must be informed of his right to bail and arrangement of sureties.
Information regarding arrest and place of detention must be given to a relative, friend, nominated person and the designated police officer.
The Magistrate before whom the arrested person is produced has no duty to satisfy himself regarding compliance with such safeguards.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
11. With reference to search of arrested person and related duties under BNSS, consider the following statements:
Articles found on an arrested person may be placed in safe custody, except necessary wearing apparel, and a receipt must be given for seized articles.
Search of a female arrested person may be conducted by any police officer if strict decency is maintained.
Offensive weapons found on the arrested person may be taken and delivered to the Court or officer before whom production is required.
Officers in charge of police stations must report cases of persons arrested without warrant to the District Magistrate or Sub-divisional Magistrate, whether bailed or otherwise.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 3 and 4 only
12. Consider the following statements regarding admissions by parties and persons connected with parties under the BSA:
Statements by a party to the proceeding may be admissions.
Statements by an agent may be admissions if the Court regards the agent as expressly or impliedly authorised.
A statement by a party suing or sued in representative character is an admission only if made while holding that character.
Statements by persons from whom parties derived interest are admissions even if made after the interest had ceased.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
13. A undertakes to collect rent for B from C. B sues A for failure to collect rent. A denies that any rent was due from C. Separately, in another dispute about whether a horse sold by P to Q is sound, P tells Q, “Ask R; R knows the matter.” Consider the following statements:
C’s statement that he owed rent to B may be relevant as an admission against A.
C’s statement is relevant only if C himself is a party to the suit between A and B.
R’s statement may become an admission because P expressly referred Q to R for information.
A statement by a person expressly referred to by a party is never treated as admission unless the Court appointed him as expert.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 4 only
14. With reference to proof of admissions by or on behalf of the maker under the BSA, consider the following statements:
Admissions are generally relevant against the maker, but cannot ordinarily be proved by or on behalf of the maker.
A ship captain may prove entries made by him in ordinary course if those entries would be admissible between third parties if he were dead.
An accused may, in a proper case, prove a self-written dated letter bearing a postmark if it would be relevant under the rule applicable to statements of unavailable persons.
A maker may prove every favourable statement made by himself merely because it is consistent with his defence.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
15. Consider the following statements regarding confession caused by inducement, threat, coercion or promise under the BSA:
A confession may become irrelevant if it appears to have been caused by inducement, threat, coercion or promise from a person in authority and relating to the charge.
Such inducement, threat, coercion or promise must be sufficient to give the accused reasonable grounds to suppose that he would gain temporal advantage or avoid temporal evil.
If the impression caused by the inducement, threat, coercion or promise has been fully removed, the confession may become relevant.
An otherwise relevant confession automatically becomes irrelevant merely because it was made under promise of secrecy, due to deception, while drunk, without warning, or in answer to questions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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Topics: Government Schemes, Haryana Districts & Divisions, CPC Interim Orders
GOVERNMENT SCHEMES: CENTRAL AND HARYANA
16. With reference to PM-KISAN Samman Nidhi, which statement is most accurate?
(A) It is a centrally sponsored scheme in which states bear 40% of the expenditure
(B) It gives ₹6,000 per year in three equal instalments to eligible landholding farmer families
(C) It gives ₹6,000 per month only to marginal farmers owning less than one hectare
(D) It is implemented only through Panchayats without direct bank transfer
17. Under Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana, which of the following conditions is most central to eligibility?
(A) Applicant must be a male head of household above 21 years
(B) Household must already possess an LPG connection to receive refill subsidy
(C) Applicant must be a woman of at least 18 years and household should not already have an LPG connection
(D) Applicant must be an income-tax payer to qualify for deposit-free LPG connection
18. PM Vishwakarma is best described as a scheme primarily intended to:
(A) provide unemployment allowance to educated rural youth
(B) provide crop insurance compensation to farmers after natural calamity
(C) recognise and support traditional artisans and craftspeople working with hands and tools
(D) provide free LPG connections to women from poor households
19. In the context of Chirayu Haryana, which statement is most accurate?
(A) It is linked with health coverage and uses PPP as an important family identification document
(B) It is a scheme exclusively for providing free tablets to school students
(C) It is a pension scheme only for unmarried men above 45 years
(D) It is a crop procurement scheme for wheat and paddy farmers
20. The Saksham Yuva Scheme of Haryana is mainly associated with:
(A) cashless health insurance for Antyodaya families
(B) unemployment allowance and honorarium for eligible educated youth against honorary work
(C) subsidised LPG cylinder distribution to rural women
(D) financial assistance for marriage of daughters of poor families
HARYANA GK: DISTRICTS AND DIVISIONS
21. After the creation of Hansi district, which combination is most accurate?
(A) Haryana has 22 districts; Hansi remains only a tehsil of Hisar
(B) Haryana has 23 districts; Hansi was carved out of Hisar district
(C) Haryana has 24 districts; Narnaund was carved out as a separate district
(D) Haryana has 21 districts; Charkhi Dadri was merged into Bhiwani
22. Which one of the following groups correctly represents districts of the Ambala Division?
(A) Ambala, Kurukshetra, Panchkula, Yamunanagar
(B) Ambala, Kaithal, Karnal, Kurukshetra
(C) Ambala, Panipat, Panchkula, Yamunanagar
(D) Ambala, Sonipat, Kurukshetra, Kaithal
23. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
(A) Sirsa — Hisar Division
(B) Palwal — Faridabad Division
(C) Kaithal — Karnal Division
(D) Kurukshetra — Karnal Division
24. Which option correctly matches division and districts?
(A) Gurugram Division — Gurugram, Rewari, Mahendragarh
(B) Faridabad Division — Faridabad, Gurugram, Nuh
(C) Karnal Division — Karnal, Kurukshetra, Yamunanagar
(D) Rohtak Division — Rohtak, Jind, Fatehabad
25. Which of the following was among the original seven districts of Haryana at the time of formation in 1966?
(A) Panchkula
(B) Charkhi Dadri
(C) Mahendragarh
(D) Palwal
CPC: INTERIM ORDERS
26. A plaintiff seeks a temporary injunction merely by showing that he has filed a suit and that the defendant has denied his claim. Which additional legal requirement is most essential?
(A) Plaintiff must show only that the suit property is valuable
(B) Plaintiff must prove prima facie case, balance of convenience and irreparable injury
(C) Plaintiff must prove his case finally at the interim stage
(D) Plaintiff must show that the defendant has already been convicted criminally
27. Under CPC, an ex parte temporary injunction may be granted before notice to the opposite party, but the court must ordinarily:
(A) grant it automatically whenever urgency is pleaded
(B) record reasons showing why delay would defeat the object of injunction
(C) first appoint a receiver in every such case
(D) dismiss the suit if the defendant is absent
28. Appointment of a receiver under Order XL CPC is most justified where:
(A) a party wants to punish the opposite party before trial
(B) the court finds it just and convenient to preserve, manage or protect disputed property
(C) the plaintiff wants immediate ownership without proving title
(D) the defendant has filed a written statement denying liability
29. Arrest before judgment under Order XXXVIII CPC is not meant to be used merely because:
(A) defendant is about to leave India with intent to obstruct or delay execution
(B) defendant is likely to abscond to defeat possible decree
(C) defendant has no defence on merits but is available within jurisdiction
(D) defendant is disposing of property to obstruct execution
30. For attachment before judgment, the most important condition is that the court must be satisfied that the defendant intends to:
(A) file an appeal against any future decree
(B) delay filing of written statement
(C) dispose of or remove property with intent to obstruct or delay execution of decree
(D) deny the plaintiff’s title during trial
ANSWER KEY WITH ONE-LINE EXPLANATIONS
1. D — Wilful misrepresentation, duty-based concealment and facilitative aid may constitute abetment; mere silence without duty is not always abetment.
2. B — An abettor present at commission may be deemed to have committed the act/offence, but only where the offence is actually committed.
3. D — Public servant concealment attracts enhanced consequences, including encryption-based concealment and varying punishment by result.
4. A — Ordinary concealment of design to commit an imprisonment offence attracts one-fourth if committed and one-eighth if not committed.
5. C — The abetment-equivalent conspiracy punishment applies to serious conspiracies, not every one-year rigorous imprisonment offence.
6. A — Superior police powers and aid to non-police warrant executors are correctly stated; statements 3 and 4 are overbroad.
7. C — Arrest may be made in the specified serious, stolen-property and deserter situations; requisition must specify person and cause.
8. D — Notice procedure protects a compliant person, but failure to comply or refusal to identify may justify arrest.
9. C — Arrest identification, memorandum and information rights are statutory duties; statement 4 is incorrect.
10. A — Grounds of arrest, right to bail and information to nominated persons/designated officer are required safeguards.
11. D — Female search must be by another female; the other statements correctly state search, weapon seizure and reporting duties.
12. B — Representative and interest-based admissions are limited by character and continuance of interest.
13. A — Statements by persons whose liability/position must be proved and persons expressly referred to may be admissions.
14. C — The maker cannot prove every self-serving statement; only statutory exceptions permit proof by the maker.
15. B — A confession is not automatically excluded merely because of secrecy, deception, drunkenness, no warning or answers to questions.
16. B — PM-KISAN is a 100% centrally funded Central Sector scheme giving ₹6,000 per year in three equal instalments to eligible landholding farmer families.
17. C — PMUY eligibility focuses on an adult woman applicant and absence of another LPG connection in the household.
18. C — PM Vishwakarma recognises and supports traditional artisans and craftspeople engaged in specified trades.
19. A — Chirayu Haryana is health-cover linked and uses PPP as a mandatory family identification document.
20. B — Saksham Yuva relates to unemployment allowance and honorarium for eligible educated youth against honorary work.
21. B — Hansi was made Haryana’s 23rd district after being carved out of Hisar.
22. A — Ambala Division consists of Ambala, Kurukshetra, Panchkula and Yamunanagar.
23. D — Kurukshetra belongs to Ambala Division, not Karnal Division.
24. A — Gurugram Division includes Gurugram, Rewari and Mahendragarh.
25. C — Mahendragarh was one of Haryana’s original districts at formation in 1966.
26. B — Temporary injunction requires prima facie case, balance of convenience and irreparable injury.
27. B — Ex parte injunction requires recorded reasons showing why delay would defeat the object.
28. B — A receiver is appointed where it is just and convenient to preserve or manage disputed property.
29. C — Arrest before judgment is not a punishment for weak defence; it targets attempts to obstruct execution.
30. C — Attachment before judgment requires intent to obstruct or delay execution by disposal or removal of property.
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