1. Superintendent of women’s shelter abuses position and induces resident woman to sexual intercourse.
It does not amount to rape. Which of the following propositions are correct?
Statements:
(1) Offence may still be attracted even if act does not amount to rape.
(2) Abuse of authority/fiduciary position is material.
(3) Offence impossible if physical resistance absent.
(4) Covers woman under charge or present in premises connected with accused’s authority.
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Newspaper publishes rape victim’s name, address, school and family details; legal magazine publishes
Supreme Court judgment text. Which of the following is the correct legal position?
(A) Both punishable.
(B) Newspaper may attract liability; publication of Supreme Court judgment stands differently.
(C) Newspaper protected if public interest claimed.
(D) Identity protection applies only to photographs.
3. Married woman dies within six years by burns; soon before death she was harassed for dowry. Which of
the following statements are correct?
Statements:
(1) Burns/bodily injury/abnormal death is material.
(2) Seven-year period is relevant.
(3) Cruelty soon before death must connect with dowry demand.
(4) Every unhappy matrimonial relationship is dowry death.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. Drug administered to pregnant woman to cause miscarriage without consent; woman dies. Accused says no
intention/knowledge of death. Which of the following reflects the correct legal position?
(A) No offence if death not intended/known.
(B) Only simple hurt.
(C) Miscarriage liability only; death irrelevant.
(D) Death caused by act intended to cause miscarriage may attract graver liability.
5. Gang uses children to steal; one child used for obscene online material; another induced to travel
likely for illicit intercourse. Which of the following statements are correct?
Statements:
(1) Hiring/engaging child to commit offence is punishable.
(2) If offence committed, engager may be punished as if he committed it.
(3) Child sexual exploitation/pornography covered.
(4) Procuration for illicit intercourse separately punishable.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1 and 4 only
6. Form/service of summons under the BNSS:
Statements:
(1) A physical summons may be in writing, in duplicate.
(2) It may be signed by the presiding officer or other authorised officer.
(3) An electronic summons is not invalid merely because it bears digital signature/image of seal
instead of physical seal.
(4) Service may include recognised electronic communication modes.
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
7. Warrant in bailable matter includes endorsement for release on bond/security. Officer refuses
release. Which of the following is the correct legal position?
(A) Officer correct; release only after production.
(B) Endorsement meaningless.
(C) Accused must remain detained until recall.
(D) Release may follow if endorsed conditions are fulfilled.
8. Warrant unexecuted because accused is concealing himself; proclamation and attachment considered.
Which of the following statements are correct?
Statements:
(1) Proclamation requires appearance at specified place/time.
(2) Appearance time cannot be less than thirty days from publication.
(3) Attachment may follow statutory conditions.
(4) Proclamation can issue without reason to believe absconding/concealment.
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
9. During search, officer suspects woman is concealing article on person. Which of the following
safeguards applies?
(A) Officer may search anyone personally without restriction.
(B) Woman must be searched by another woman with strict regard to decency.
(C) Personal search during search is prohibited.
(D) Search void because premises locked.
10. During lawful search, documents/devices seized; witnesses sign list; occupant demands copy. Which of
the following is the correct legal position?
(A) Copy need not be supplied until charge-sheet.
(B) Occupant has no right to be present.
(C) Occupant may attend and copy of signed list is to be delivered as required.
(D) Search witnesses must attend every hearing automatically.
11. Dying person says, “X stabbed me near bridge after calling me for land dispute,” and also says, “Y
stole my motorcycle five years ago.” In X’s murder trial:
(A) First part may be relevant; unrelated old theft is not relevant merely because same statement.
(B) Entire statement automatically relevant.
(C) No part relevant unless maker expected death.
(D) Relevant only if recorded by Magistrate.
12. Which of the following statements made by a dead or unavailable person may become relevant?
Statements:
(1) Entry in ordinary course of business.
(2) Statement against proprietary/pecuniary interest.
(3) Statement about public pathway made before dispute.
(4) Statement about relationship by family member with special knowledge.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 4 only
13. Previous testimony of now-dead witness is sought in later civil proceeding. Which of the following
conditions is not required?
(A) Same parties/representatives.
(B) Right and opportunity to cross-examine.
(C) Substantially same issues.
(D) Same advocate in both proceedings.
14. Trader relies only on own account books; public electronic land record shows ownership. Which of the
following is the correct legal position?
(A) Account books alone always sufficient.
(B) Public electronic records are never relevant.
(C) Account books irrelevant even if regularly kept.
(D) Account entries may be relevant but alone insufficient; official electronic records may be
relevant.
15. Insolvency order declares A insolvent; later fraud/collusion and lack of competence alleged. Which
of the following statements are correct?
Statements:
(1) Final insolvency judgment may be relevant to legal character.
(2) It is merely opinion and never affects status.
(3) Fraud/collusion/incompetency may be proved.
(4) Such judgments differ from ordinary third-party judgments.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
16. Select the correctly matched pair:
(A) Section 2(2) — Judgment; Section 2(9) — Decree; Section 2(14) — Order
(B) Section 2(2) — Decree; Section 2(9) — Judgment; Section 2(14) — Order
(C) Section 2(2) — Order; Section 2(9) — Decree; Section 2(14) — Judgment
(D) Section 2(2) — Judgment; Section 2(9) — Order; Section 2(14) — Decree
17. Under Section 2(2), which is expressly included in decree?
(A) Dismissal for default
(B) Any adjudication appealable as order
(C) Rejection of plaint
(D) Every interlocutory order
18. Preliminary decree and final decree distinction:
(A) Preliminary decree only criminal; final decree civil.
(B) Preliminary decree determines rights but requires further proceedings; final decree completely
disposes.
(C) Preliminary decree always non-appealable.
(D) Final decree only by appellate court.
19. Plaint rejected under Order VII Rule 11; plaintiff says no trial, so no decree. Which of the
following is the correct legal position?
(A) Decree always needs full trial.
(B) Rejection of plaint is included in decree under Section 2(2).
(C) Rejection is administrative order.
(D) It becomes decree only after written statement.
20. Section 33 CPC: after hearing, court pronounces judgment and decree follows. Which of the following
is the correct legal position?
(A) Judgment and decree identical.
(B) Judgment gives grounds; decree is formal expression following judgment.
(C) Decree first, judgment later.
(D) Section 33 applies only to execution.
21. Early Vedic vs Later Vedic:
(A) Early Vedic urban and monetised; Later purely pastoral.
(B) Early more tribal/pastoral; Later saw agriculture, kingdoms and ritual complexity.
(C) Early dominated by Buddhism.
(D) Rigveda composed in Later Vedic period only.
22. Select the correctly matched pair:
(A) Mahavira — Founder of Buddhism
(B) Gautama Buddha — 24th Tirthankara
(C) Parshvanatha — 23rd Tirthankara
(D) Rishabhanatha — Founded Sangha at Sarnath
23. Anekantavada is associated with:
(A) Jainism
(B) Buddhism
(C) Vedic ritualism
(D) Ajivika philosophy
24. Select the correct sequence of the Four Noble Truths:
(A) Right conduct, meditation, livelihood, speech
(B) Suffering, cause, cessation, path
(C) Non-violence, non-possession, truth, celibacy
(D) Birth, sacrifice, rebirth, ritual liberation
25. Select the correct statement regarding the Buddhist Councils:
(A) First Council traditionally at Rajagriha after Buddha’s death.
(B) Fourth Council under Chandragupta Maurya at Pataliputra.
(C) Second Council compiled Rigveda.
(D) Third Council under Harsha at Kannauj.
26. COURT is FRXUW. LEGAL will be:
(A) OHJDO
(B) OHJBM
(C) MHFDO
(D) OJHDO
27. JUDGE is MXGJH. TRIAL will be:
(A) VUKDO
(B) VULDO
(C) WULDO
(D) VUKBN
28. LAW = 12-1-23 and CODE = 3-15-4-5. DECREE =
(A) 4-5-3-18-5-5
(B) 5-4-3-18-5-5
(C) 4-5-3-19-5-5
(D) 4-6-3-18-5-5
29. Each letter is replaced by immediately preceding letter, then order reversed. ORDER =
(A) QDCQN
(B) QDCMN
(C) QEDQN
(D) RCDQN
30. BNS is EQV and CPC is FSF. BSA will be:
(A) EVD
(B) FVD
(C) EVC
(D) DVC
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ANSWER KEY
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1. B — Abuse of authority/fiduciary position may create liability even where act is not rape.
2. B — Victim identity disclosure may be punishable; Supreme Court judgment publication is treated differently.
3. A — Dowry death needs abnormal death within seven years and dowry-linked cruelty soon before death.
4. D — Death from act intended to cause miscarriage may attract graver liability.
5. B — BNS covers child use for offences, exploitation and procuration.
6. D — Physical/electronic summons, authorised signature, digital signature/image of seal and recognised
electronic communication modes are valid under BNSS.
7. D — Warrant may contain security/bail endorsement.
8. C — Proclamation requires absconding/concealment and thirty-day appearance period.
9. B — Woman’s search must be by woman with strict regard to decency.
10. C — Search procedure includes signed list and supply of copy.
11. A — Only death-transaction part is relevant; unrelated allegation is not automatically relevant.
12. C — Business, against-interest, public right/custom and relationship statements may be relevant.
13. D — Same advocate is not required.
14. D — Account entries are relevant but not alone sufficient; official records may be relevant.
15. C — Insolvency judgment may affect status but fraud/collusion/incompetence may be shown.
16. B — Section 2(2) decree, Section 2(9) judgment, Section 2(14) order.
17. C — Rejection of plaint is included in decree.
18. B — Preliminary decree settles rights; final decree disposes suit.
19. B — Rejection of plaint is deemed decree.
20. B — Judgment gives reasons; decree is formal adjudication.
21. B — Later Vedic period shows agriculture, territorial expansion and ritualism.
22. C — Parshvanatha is 23rd Tirthankara.
23. A — Anekantavada is Jain many-sided reality doctrine.
24. B — Four Noble Truths concern suffering, cause, cessation and path.
25. A — First Buddhist Council is traditionally linked with Rajagriha.
26. A — Each letter +3: LEGAL → OHJDO.
27. C — Each letter +3: TRIAL → WULDO.
28. A — DECREE = 4-5-3-18-5-5.
29. A — ORDER → NQCDQ → reversed QDCQN.
30. A — Each letter +3: BSA → EVD.