1. Under Section 125, a Court of Session or Court of Magistrate of the first class may, at the time of passing sentence, order execution of bond or bail bond for keeping peace for a period not exceeding-
(A) three years
(B) one year
(C) six months
(D) five years
2. Under Section 126, when an Executive Magistrate receives information that a person is likely to commit breach of peace or disturb public tranquillity, he may require such person to show cause why he should not execute a bond or bail bond for keeping peace for a period not exceeding-
(A) six months
(B) one year
(C) two years
(D) three years
3. Under Section 129, security for good behaviour from habitual offenders may be ordered for a period not exceeding-
(A) six months
(B) one year
(C) three years
(D) five years
4. Under Section 130, an order requiring a person to show cause under Sections 126 to 129 must set forth which of the following?
(1) Substance of information received
(2) Amount of bond to be executed
(3) Term for which the bond is to be in force
(4) Number of sureties
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4 only
5. Under Section 135, the inquiry into truth of information shall be completed within-
(A) thirty days
(B) sixty days
(C) three months
(D) six months from the date of its commencement
6. Under Section 136, when a child is ordered to give security, the bond shall be executed-
(A) by the child personally only
(B) only by his sureties
(C) by the police officer who produced the child
(D) by the complainant
7. Under Section 144, a Magistrate of the first class may order maintenance in favour of which of the following persons if they are unable to maintain themselves and the person having sufficient means neglects or refuses to maintain them?
(1) Wife
(2) Legitimate or illegitimate child
(3) Father or mother
(4) Major child suffering from physical or mental abnormality or injury
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
8. Under Section 144, an application for interim maintenance and expenses of proceeding shall, as far as possible, be disposed of within-
(A) fifteen days from filing
(B) thirty days from filing
(C) sixty days from the date of service of notice of the application
(D) ninety days from the date of order
9. Under Section 147, an order of maintenance may be enforced by-
(A) only the Magistrate who passed the order
(B) any Magistrate in any place where the person against whom the order is made may be
(C) only a Civil Court after a separate suit
(D) only the District Magistrate
10. Under Section 148, who may command an unlawful assembly or assembly of five or more persons likely to cause disturbance of public peace to disperse?
(1) Executive Magistrate
(2) Officer in charge of a police station
(3) In absence of officer in charge, any police officer not below the rank of sub-inspector
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
11. Under Section 151, prosecution for an act purporting to be done under Sections 148, 149 or 150 against an officer or member of the armed forces requires sanction of-
(A) Central Government
(B) State Government
(C) District Magistrate
(D) Court of Session
12. Under Section 152, a conditional order for removal of nuisance may relate to which of the following?
(1) Removal of unlawful obstruction or nuisance from a public place
(2) Regulation or prohibition of trade injurious to health or physical comfort of the community
(3) Fencing of a tank, well or excavation adjacent to a public way or public place
(4) Destruction, confinement or disposal of a dangerous animal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
13. Under Section 157, where the person against whom a conditional order under Section 152 is made appears and shows cause, the Magistrate shall take evidence in the matter as in-
(A) a summons-case
(B) a warrant-case instituted on police report
(C) a sessions trial
(D) a summary trial only
14. Under Section 163, an order in urgent cases of nuisance or apprehended danger may be passed ex parte-
(A) only after the person admits the nuisance
(B) in cases of emergency or where circumstances do not admit of service of notice in due time
(C) only by the High Court
(D) only after a civil decree is passed
15. Consider the following statements regarding preventive action of police under Sections 168 to 172:
(1) Every police officer may interpose to prevent commission of any cognizable offence.
(2) A person arrested under Section 170 cannot be detained beyond twenty-four hours unless further detention is required or authorised under law.
(3) A police officer may interpose to prevent injury attempted in his view to public property.
(4) Persons are bound to conform to lawful directions of a police officer given in fulfilment of duty under Chapter XII.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
16. The smallest particle of an element which retains its chemical identity is called:
(A) Atom
(B) Molecule of compound only
(C) Ion only
(D) Mixture
17. A molecule of water is represented by which formula?
(A) H2O
(B) CO2
(C) NaCl
(D) O2
18. A substance which turns blue litmus red is generally:
(A) Acid
(B) Base
(C) Neutral salt only
(D) Noble gas
19. A substance which turns red litmus blue is generally:
(A) Base
(B) Acid
(C) Metal only
(D) Insoluble salt only
20. Common salt used in food is chemically known as:
(A) Sodium chloride
(B) Sodium carbonate
(C) Calcium carbonate
(D) Potassium nitrate
21. 25% of 480 is:
(A) 120
(B) 140
(C) 160
(D) 180
22. If the price of an article increases from Rs. 800 to Rs. 920, the percentage increase is:
(A) 15%
(B) 12%
(C) 20%
(D) 10%
23. 40% of a number is 240. The number is:
(A) 600
(B) 480
(C) 720
(D) 960
24. If 30% of students in a class of 60 are girls, how many boys are there?
(A) 42
(B) 36
(C) 18
(D) 48
25. A candidate scores 315 marks out of 450. What is the percentage score?
(A) 70%
(B) 65%
(C) 75%
(D) 80%
26. A says to B, “I am willing to sell my car to you for Rs. 5 lakh, if you agree today.” B says, “I shall consider it tomorrow.” Which statement is most accurate under Section 2(a)?
(A) A has made no proposal because B has not accepted.
(B) A has made a proposal because willingness was signified with a view to obtaining B’s assent.
(C) A has made an agreement because price is fixed.
(D) B’s reply is acceptance because silence is sufficient.
27. Consider the following statements under Section 4:
(1) Communication of a proposal is complete when it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made.
(2) Communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposer when it is put in course of transmission to him so as to be out of acceptor’s power.
(3) Communication of acceptance is complete as against the acceptor when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer.
Which are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
28. A posts an offer to B. Before the offer reaches B, A posts a revocation letter. The revocation letter reaches B before the offer letter reaches him. Under Section 4 read with Section 6, which is correct?
(A) The proposal is revoked only when A mentally decides to revoke.
(B) Revocation is ineffective because proposal was already posted.
(C) Revocation becomes effective as against B when it comes to B’s knowledge.
(D) Revocation is effective only if B first accepts the offer.
29. A prescribes acceptance by registered post only. B accepts by ordinary post. A does not insist upon the prescribed manner within a reasonable time. Under Section 7, what follows?
(A) Acceptance is necessarily void.
(B) A must insist within reasonable time, otherwise he accepts the acceptance.
(C) B’s acceptance is invalid even if A acts upon it.
(D) The contract is void for uncertainty.
30. Which is NOT a statutory mode of revocation of proposal under Section 6?
(A) Communication of notice of revocation by proposer
(B) Lapse of prescribed or reasonable time
(C) Death or insanity of proposer, if fact comes to acceptor’s knowledge before acceptance
(D) Death of proposer after acceptance is complete, irrespective of acceptor’s knowledge before acceptance
31. A offers Rs. 10,000 to anyone who traces his missing file and sends it to his office. B, knowing of the offer, traces and sends the file without writing any letter of acceptance. Which section most directly makes this acceptance effective?
(A) Section 5
(B) Section 6
(C) Section 8
(D) Section 9
32. Under Section 5, which statement is correct?
(A) Acceptance may be revoked at any time before communication of acceptance is complete as against proposer.
(B) Acceptance may be revoked at any time before communication of acceptance is complete as against acceptor.
(C) Proposal may be revoked after acceptance is complete against proposer.
(D) Neither proposal nor acceptance can ever be revoked once communicated.
33. Which of the following best explains Section 3?
(A) Communication of proposal, acceptance and revocation is made by any act or omission intended to communicate or having the effect of communicating it.
(B) Communication is valid only if made orally.
(C) Communication is valid only if made in registered writing.
(D) Communication of acceptance is complete only on execution of formal contract.
34. A sends an offer to B. B sends a qualified acceptance altering payment terms. Which statement is correct under Section 7?
(A) It is valid acceptance because some assent is shown.
(B) It is no acceptance because acceptance must be absolute and unqualified.
(C) It is valid if the alteration is commercially reasonable.
(D) It is valid unless A rejects it in writing.
35. Which pairing is correct under Section 9?
(A) Express promise – proposal or acceptance made otherwise than in words
(B) Implied promise – proposal or acceptance made in words
(C) Express promise – proposal or acceptance made in words
(D) Implied promise – promise without consideration
ANSWER KEY
1. A – Section 125 permits bond for keeping peace for a period not exceeding three years.
2. B – Section 126 permits bond for keeping peace for a period not exceeding one year.
3. C – Section 129 permits good behaviour security from habitual offenders for a period not exceeding three years.
4. C – Section 130 requires substance of information, bond amount, term and number of sureties.
5. D – Section 135 requires completion of inquiry within six months from commencement.
6. B – Under Section 136, where the person is a child, the bond is executed only by sureties.
7. D – Section 144 covers wife, children including certain major disabled children, and parents.
8. C – Interim maintenance application is to be disposed of as far as possible within sixty days from service of notice.
9. B – Section 147 allows enforcement by any Magistrate where the person against whom the order is made may be.
10. D – Section 148 covers Executive Magistrate, officer in charge, and in his absence police officer not below sub-inspector.
11. A – For armed forces personnel, sanction of Central Government is required.
12. D – Section 152 covers all four types of public nuisance-related conditional orders.
13. A – Section 157 requires evidence to be taken as in a summons-case.
14. B – Section 163 permits ex parte order in emergency or where notice cannot be served in due time.
15. D – Sections 168 to 172 support all four preventive-police-action statements.
16. A – An atom is the smallest unit of an element retaining its chemical identity.
17. A – The chemical formula of water is H2O.
18. A – Acids turn blue litmus red.
19. A – Bases turn red litmus blue.
20. A – Common salt is sodium chloride.
21. A – 25% of 480 = 120.
22. A – Increase is 120 on 800, which is 15%.
23. A – If 40% is 240, then 100% is 600.
24. A – Girls are 18; boys are 60 – 18 = 42.
25. A – 315/450 x 100 = 70%.
26. B – Section 2(a) requires willingness signified to obtain assent.
27. D – All three statements reproduce Section 4 rules.
28. C – Revocation is complete against the offeree when it comes to his knowledge.
29. B – Section 7 requires proposer to insist on prescribed manner within reasonable time.
30. D – Death or insanity revokes only if known to acceptor before acceptance.
31. C – Section 8 covers acceptance by performance of conditions.
32. B – Acceptance may be revoked before communication is complete as against acceptor.
33. A – Section 3 includes acts and omissions intended or effective to communicate.
34. B – Section 7 requires absolute and unqualified acceptance.
35. C – Section 9 defines express promise by words.