1. X is legally bound to attend before a public servant in obedience to a summons, but intentionally omits to attend at the specified time. Y attends Court under summons but departs before the time at which it is lawful for him to leave. Which statement is correct under BNS Section 208?
A. Only X is punishable, because premature departure after attendance is not covered.
B. Both X and Y are covered, and Court attendance attracts the higher punishment clause.
C. Neither X nor Y is punishable unless a warrant had first been issued.
D. Only Y is punishable, because Section 208 applies only after a person first appears.
2. A person fails to appear at the specified place and time required by a proclamation published under BNSS Section 84(1). Later, the Court declares him a proclaimed offender under BNSS Section 84(4). Which statement correctly states BNS Section 209?
A. Simple failure to appear may attract imprisonment up to three years, fine, both, or community service; proclaimed-offender declaration attracts imprisonment up to seven years and fine.
B. Failure to appear under proclamation and declaration as proclaimed offender carry exactly the same punishment.
C. Section 209 applies only when the original offence is punishable with death or imprisonment for life.
D. Section 209 permits only community service and fine, not imprisonment.
3. R is legally bound to produce an electronic land record before a District Court but intentionally omits to produce it. S is legally bound to give information regarding commission of an offence to a public servant but intentionally omits to give it. Which option correctly applies BNS Sections 210 and 211?
A. Both R and S are punishable only with fine because both omissions relate to official information.
B. R’s omission before Court is punishable only as an ordinary omission before a public servant.
C. R attracts the Court-related clause under Section 210, while S attracts the offence-related clause under Section 211.
D. Neither R nor S commits an offence unless actual loss to Government is proved.
4. A village watchman knows that a group has passed through his village to commit dacoity nearby, but he informs the nearest police officer that the group has gone in a different direction. Which statements are correct under BNS Section 212?
1. The person must be legally bound to furnish information.
2. The information must be furnished as true.
3. The person must know or have reason to believe that the information is false.
4. Where the information relates to commission or prevention of an offence, punishment is higher.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4 only
5. Consider the following punishment statements under BNS Sections 213 to 216:
1. Refusing oath or affirmation when duly required is punishable with simple imprisonment up to six months, or fine up to ₹5,000, or both.
2. Refusing to answer a public servant authorised to question is punishable with simple imprisonment up to six months, or fine up to ₹5,000, or both.
3. Refusing to sign a statement is punishable with simple imprisonment up to six months, or fine up to ₹5,000, or both.
4. False statement on oath or affirmation to an authorised person is punishable with imprisonment up to three years and fine.
Which statements are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
6. A Magistrate takes cognizance of an offence upon information received from a private person and his own satisfaction, not upon police report or complaint. Before evidence is taken, the accused objects to further proceedings before that Magistrate. What follows under BNSS Section 211?
A. The accused must be informed of his right to have the case inquired into or tried by another Magistrate, and on objection the case must be transferred as specified by the Chief Judicial Magistrate.
B. The accused has no such right once cognizance has been taken.
C. The case must automatically be committed to the Court of Session.
D. The objection is valid only after prosecution evidence is complete.
7. Consider the following statements about BNSS Section 212:
1. A Chief Judicial Magistrate may, after taking cognizance, make over a case for inquiry or trial to any competent Magistrate subordinate to him.
2. A first-class Magistrate empowered by the Chief Judicial Magistrate may make over a case to a competent Magistrate specified by general or special order.
3. The transferee Magistrate must again take cognizance before inquiry or trial.
4. Making over under Section 212 is different from transfer on accused’s objection under Section 211.
Which statements are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
8. A private stranger files a complaint for an offence punishable under BNS Sections 206 to 223, excluding Section 209. No written complaint is filed by the public servant concerned, his administrative superior, or an authorised public servant. What is the correct position under BNSS Section 215?
A. Cognizance is valid because criminal law may be set in motion by any person.
B. Cognizance is barred unless the required written complaint by the proper public servant channel exists.
C. Cognizance becomes valid if police later confirms the facts.
D. Cognizance is valid only if the accused is already in custody.
9. Which statements are correct regarding prosecution of Judges and public servants under BNSS Section 218?
1. Previous sanction is generally required where the alleged offence was committed while acting or purporting to act in discharge of official duty.
2. The competent Government must decide within 120 days from receipt of request, failing which sanction is deemed to have been accorded.
3. No sanction is required for specified offences including BNS Sections 64, 65, 66, 68 to 71, 74 to 79, 143, 199 and 200.
4. The Government may determine the person by whom, manner in which, and offence for which prosecution is to be conducted.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
10. In relation to BNSS Sections 219 to 222, which statements are correct?
1. Offences punishable under BNS Sections 81 to 84 generally require a complaint by an aggrieved person.
2. For BNS Section 84, no person other than the husband of the woman is deemed aggrieved.
3. For BNS Section 85, cognizance may be based on police report or complaint by the aggrieved woman or specified relatives.
4. For specified defamation against high constitutional or public functionaries, Court of Session may take cognizance without committal on Public Prosecutor’s written complaint, subject to sanction and limitation.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
11. A written complaint is filed by a private complainant before a competent Magistrate. The Magistrate does not examine the complainant or the witnesses present, and also does not give the accused an opportunity of being heard before taking cognizance. Which is correct under BNSS Section 223?
A. The Magistrate has erred because examination on oath is the rule in such private complaint, and cognizance cannot be taken without giving the accused opportunity of being heard.
B. The Magistrate has acted correctly because examination is required only after process is issued.
C. The Magistrate has acted correctly if the complaint discloses a cognizable offence.
D. The accused need not be heard because he enters the case only after summons.
12. A complaint is filed against a public servant for an offence alleged to have been committed in the course of discharge of official functions. What additional safeguards are required under BNSS Section 223(2)?
A. Only previous sanction of the Governor is required in every case.
B. Only a police report is required; the public servant need not be heard.
C. The Magistrate may proceed merely because the complaint is supported by affidavit.
D. The public servant must get an opportunity to make assertions regarding the situation, and a superior officer’s report containing facts and circumstances must be received.
13. Which statements are correct under BNSS Sections 227, 230 and 231?
1. No summons or warrant shall be issued against the accused under Section 227 until a list of prosecution witnesses has been filed.
2. In a proceeding instituted upon a written complaint, every summons or warrant issued under Section 227 shall be accompanied by a copy of such complaint.
3. In a police-report case, copies must be furnished without delay, and in no case beyond fourteen days from production or appearance of the accused, to the accused and to the victim if represented by an advocate.
4. In a non-police-report case exclusively triable by Court of Session, the Magistrate issuing process must furnish the specified copies free of cost, and electronic supply is treated as duly furnished.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
14. Which statement correctly reflects BSA Sections 73 to 77?
A. For verifying a digital signature, the Court may direct production of the Digital Signature Certificate or verification by applying the public key listed in it.
B. Public documents include only records of Indian public officers and never include foreign public officers.
C. Certified copies of public documents cannot prove contents unless the original public document is also produced.
D. Proceedings of municipal or local bodies can never be proved by certified copies.
15. Under BSA Sections 78 to 82, which statements are correct?
1. The Court shall presume genuineness of duly certified documents declared admissible by law, if substantially in prescribed form.
2. The Court shall presume genuineness of official gazettes, newspapers or journals, and law-kept documents produced from proper custody.
3. Electronic or digital records purporting to be official gazettes or law-kept e-records are covered by a separate presumption if kept in proper custody.
4. Maps or plans made for purposes of a cause are automatically presumed accurate merely because they are filed in Court.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
16. A promises to deliver 100 bales of cotton to B on 1 June at B’s warehouse. A reaches the warehouse on the appointed day with the correct goods and gives B a reasonable opportunity to inspect them, but B refuses to accept. Which is correct under Sections 37 and 38 of the Indian Contract Act?
A. A remains liable because actual acceptance by B is always necessary.
B. A loses contractual rights because tender is never equivalent to performance.
C. A is not responsible for non-performance and does not lose contractual rights if the tender is valid.
D. A is discharged only if B signs a written refusal.
17. Which of the following are essential conditions of a valid offer of performance under Section 38 of the Indian Contract Act?
1. It must be unconditional.
2. It must be made at a proper time and place.
3. The promisee must have reasonable opportunity to ascertain that the promisor is able and willing to perform the whole promise.
4. Where delivery of a thing is involved, the promisee must have reasonable opportunity to see that the thing offered is what was promised.
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1 and 4 only
18. A singer contracts to perform for two months but wilfully absents herself on the sixth night. The theatre manager permits her to perform on the seventh night. What is the correct position under Section 39 of the Indian Contract Act?
A. The manager can still terminate the whole contract solely on the sixth-night absence.
B. The singer is fully discharged because the manager permitted later performance.
C. The manager cannot claim any compensation once he permits seventh-night performance.
D. The manager has acquiesced in continuance and cannot terminate on that ground, but may claim compensation for the sixth-night breach.
19. Which combination correctly states the rule regarding by whom contracts must be performed?
1. If personal skill or intention of personal performance appears, the promisor himself must perform.
2. In ordinary money-payment contracts, the promisor may perform personally or through a competent person.
3. If the promisee accepts performance from a third person, he cannot afterwards enforce the same promise against the promisor.
4. In every contract, including artistic personal-skill contracts, the promisor’s legal representatives must perform after death.
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
20. A, B and C jointly promise to pay D ₹3,00,000. D releases A by a separate arrangement but does not release B and C. Which is correct under Sections 43 and 44 of the Indian Contract Act?
A. D may still proceed against B and C, and A’s release does not free A from contribution responsibility to the other joint promisors.
B. D’s release of A automatically discharges B and C.
C. D can recover only one-third from each promisor.
D. A’s release destroys all contribution rights among joint promisors.
21. X promises Y and Z jointly to repay ₹5,00,000. Y dies before performance. Who can claim performance under Section 45 of the Indian Contract Act, assuming no contrary intention appears?
A. Z alone during his life.
B. Y’s representative alone.
C. Y’s representative jointly with Z during Z’s life, and after Z’s death, representatives of all jointly.
D. The right is extinguished because one joint promisee died.
22. A contract requires A to perform without any application by B, but no time is specified. B sues A after a short delay and argues that any delay is breach. Which is correct under Section 46 of the Indian Contract Act?
A. A must perform instantly on formation of the contract.
B. A must perform within reasonable time, and reasonable time is a question of fact.
C. B must first appoint a place before any duty arises.
D. The contract is void for uncertainty.
23. A promises to deliver goods at B’s warehouse on 1 June and undertakes to perform without application by B. A reaches after the usual closing hour, and B refuses to receive the goods. Which is correct under Section 47 of the Indian Contract Act?
A. A has performed because he arrived on the correct calendar day.
B. B must accept because the promise did not mention business hours.
C. A has performed if the goods were of correct quality.
D. A has not performed because performance must be during usual business hours at the proper place.
24. A promise is to be performed on a certain day, but the promisor has not undertaken to perform it without application by the promisee. What is the promisee’s duty under Section 48 of the Indian Contract Act?
A. To apply for performance at a proper place and within usual hours of business.
B. To wait at his residence throughout the day.
C. To send a legal notice before sunset.
D. To apply only through Court.
25. A undertakes to deliver 1,000 bags of grain to B on a fixed day, without application by B, but the contract fixes no place of performance. What must A do under Section 49 of the Indian Contract Act?
A. Deliver the goods at any public warehouse and inform B later.
B. Treat the contract as void for uncertainty.
C. Apply to B to appoint a reasonable place and perform at such place.
D. Deliver at his own residence and require B to collect.
26. B owes A ₹2,000. A directs B to transfer the amount to A’s account with C Bank. B also banks with C, and C transfers the amount from B’s account to A’s credit. C fails before A learns of the transfer. Which is correct under Section 50 of the Indian Contract Act?
A. B has not paid because A did not personally receive cash.
B. There has been good payment by B because performance was made in the manner prescribed by A.
C. Payment is valid only if C later confirms the transfer after failure.
D. B must pay again because risk of the bank always remains on the debtor.
27. A agrees to deliver machinery to B, and B agrees to pay on delivery. On the delivery date, A brings the machinery but B is not ready with payment. Which is correct under Section 51 of the Indian Contract Act?
A. A must deliver first and sue later for price.
B. B must pay first even if A is not ready to deliver.
C. Both promises become void.
D. A need not deliver unless B is ready and willing to pay, and B need not pay unless A is ready and willing to deliver.
28. A agrees to build a house for B for a fixed price. The contract is silent about the order of performance. Which is correct under Section 52 of the Indian Contract Act?
A. Express order controls; if no order is fixed, the order required by the nature of transaction controls.
B. Payment must always precede performance in every reciprocal-promise contract.
C. Construction and payment must always occur simultaneously.
D. The contract is void because order of performance is not express.
29. A contracts that B shall execute certain work for him. B is ready and willing, but A prevents B from entering the site and performing. What is the effect under Section 53 of the Indian Contract Act?
A. The contract automatically becomes void and neither party can claim anything.
B. B must still perform later whenever A permits.
C. The contract becomes voidable at B’s option, and B may claim compensation for loss caused by non-performance.
D. A is liable only if B first files a suit for specific performance.
30. Which statements correctly reflect Sections 54 and 55 of the Indian Contract Act?
1. If performance of one reciprocal promise cannot be claimed until the other is performed, default by the first promisor bars him from claiming the reciprocal promise.
2. The defaulting party under Section 54 must compensate the other party for loss caused by non-performance.
3. If time is of the essence and performance is not made at or before the fixed time, the contract becomes voidable at the promisee’s option.
4. If delayed performance is accepted in a time-essential contract, compensation for delay cannot be claimed unless notice of intention to claim compensation is given at the time of acceptance.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
31. In human digestion, a student writes: “Bile is an enzyme secreted by the gall bladder; it digests proteins in the stomach; pancreatic juice acts only on carbohydrates; villi mainly absorb undigested roughage.” Which correction is most accurate?
A. Bile is an enzyme, but it digests fats, not proteins.
B. Bile is produced by the liver, stored in the gall bladder, helps emulsify fats, and villi chiefly help absorption in the small intestine.
C. Pancreatic juice acts only in the stomach and contains no fat-digesting enzyme.
D. Villi are located mainly in the large intestine and absorb only water.
32. Which sequence best describes carbohydrate digestion in a healthy adult?
A. Starch digestion starts only in the stomach and ends in the large intestine.
B. Salivary amylase starts starch digestion in the mouth, gastric acid stops its action, and pancreatic and intestinal enzymes continue digestion in the small intestine.
C. Pepsin converts starch into glucose in the stomach.
D. Bile breaks starch into amino acids in the duodenum.
33. In respiratory physiology, which statements are correct?
1. Main gaseous exchange occurs across alveolar walls.
2. Oxygen moves from alveoli to blood mainly due to partial pressure gradient.
3. Carbon dioxide moves from blood to alveoli for exhalation.
4. Most oxygen is carried dissolved freely in plasma, not bound to haemoglobin.
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
34. During normal inspiration at rest, which combination is correct?
A. Diaphragm relaxes, thoracic volume decreases, intrapulmonary pressure rises, air moves in.
B. Diaphragm contracts, thoracic volume decreases, intrapulmonary pressure rises, air moves out.
C. Diaphragm relaxes, ribs move down, pressure falls, air moves in.
D. Diaphragm contracts and flattens, thoracic volume increases, intrapulmonary pressure falls, air moves in.
35. Which statement about blood circulation is correct?
A. Pulmonary artery carries oxygenated blood from lungs to heart.
B. Pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from right ventricle to lungs, while pulmonary veins return oxygenated blood to left atrium.
C. Aorta carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs.
D. Valves in the heart mainly produce red blood cells.
36. Which statement correctly relates the heart’s electrical system and the nervous system?
A. The AV node is the natural pacemaker and initiates every heartbeat before the SA node.
B. Purkinje fibres are located in the lungs and regulate gaseous exchange.
C. SA node normally initiates heartbeat, AV node delays conduction, and autonomic nerves can modify heart rate.
D. The cerebellum directly pumps blood by sending impulses to ventricles.
37. In a spinal withdrawal reflex, a person touches a hot surface and rapidly withdraws the hand before conscious awareness becomes clear. Which pathway is most accurate?
A. Receptor → sensory neuron → spinal cord interneuron → motor neuron → effector muscle.
B. Receptor → motor neuron → cerebrum → sensory neuron → effector muscle.
C. Skin → cerebellum → liver → muscle.
D. Receptor → optic nerve → medulla → kidney.
38. Match the human nervous system part with the most appropriate function:
List I
A. Cerebellum
B. Medulla oblongata
C. Hypothalamus
D. Cerebrum
List II
1. Higher thinking, memory and voluntary actions
2. Coordination and balance
3. Regulation of vital involuntary functions like breathing and heart rate
4. Temperature, hunger, thirst and endocrine link
A. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
B. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
C. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
D. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
39. Which statements correctly describe the constitutional position of the Governor and Chief Minister in a State?
1. The Governor is appointed by the President.
2. The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor.
3. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly.
4. The Governor has an ordinary vote in the Legislative Assembly.
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
40. Which statement best describes the composition of the Haryana Vidhan Sabha?
A. It is bicameral with Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council.
B. It has 100 elected members and 10 nominated members.
C. It consists of 90 elected members from 90 constituencies, including general and reserved constituencies.
D. It has the same number of members as the Lok Sabha seats from Haryana.
41. Which statement regarding the Punjab and Haryana High Court is correct?
A. It is a common High Court for Punjab, Haryana and the Union Territory of Chandigarh, located at Chandigarh.
B. Haryana has a separate High Court located at Panchkula.
C. Punjab and Haryana have separate High Courts but a common Supreme Court Bench.
D. The High Court for Haryana sits only when the Haryana Vidhan Sabha is in session.
42. Which combination correctly states the role of the State Election Commission, Haryana?
1. It conducts elections to Panchayati Raj Institutions.
2. It conducts elections to municipal bodies in the State.
3. It was constituted under Articles 243K and 243ZA of the Constitution.
4. It conducts elections to the Haryana Vidhan Sabha.
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
43. Which is the correct rural local body hierarchy in Haryana’s Panchayati Raj structure?
A. Zila Parishad at village level, Gram Panchayat at block level, Panchayat Samiti at district level.
B. Gram Panchayat at village level, Panchayat Samiti at block or intermediate level, Zila Parishad at district level.
C. Municipal Council at village level, Panchayat Samiti at district level, Zila Parishad at State level.
D. Gram Sabha at district level, Municipal Corporation at block level, Zila Parishad at village level.
44. Which statements correctly distinguish rural and urban local bodies in Haryana?
1. Panchayati Raj Institutions primarily cover rural local governance.
2. Municipal bodies primarily cover urban local governance.
3. Municipal Corporations are village-level rural bodies.
4. Zila Parishad is a district-level Panchayati Raj body.
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
45. Which statement correctly describes the institutional scheme for local body elections in Haryana?
A. Panchayati Raj Institutions and municipal bodies are both elected through the State Election Commission framework, while Vidhan Sabha elections are not conducted by the State Election Commission.
B. Gram Panchayats conduct municipal elections and supervise Municipal Corporations.
C. Zila Parishads conduct elections to the Haryana Vidhan Sabha.
D. Municipal Councils conduct elections to Panchayat Samitis and Zila Parishads.
ANSWER KEY
1. B
2. A
3. C
4. C
5. A
6. A
7. C
8. B
9. D
10. C
11. A
12. D
13. D
14. A
15. C
16. C
17. A
18. D
19. B
20. A
21. C
22. B
23. D
24. A
25. C
26. B
27. D
28. A
29. C
30. D
31. B
32. B
33. A
34. D
35. B
36. C
37. A
38. D
39. C
40. C
41. A
42. B
43. B
44. A
45. A