1. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the code given below:
List I
A. Public nuisance under BNS
B. Negligent act likely to spread infection of disease dangerous to life
C. Disobedience to quarantine rule
D. Rash navigation of vessel
List II
I. Section 273 BNS
II. Section 282 BNS
III. Section 270 BNS
IV. Section 271 BNS
(A) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(C) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(D) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
2. A private bus operator knowingly violates a Government rule made for regulating movement between an infected district and a non-infected district. No passenger is proved to be actually infected, but the rule was validly made for regulating intercourse between places where an infectious disease prevails and other places. Which is the most accurate legal position under BNS?
(A) Section 271 applies because actual spread of infection is necessary but negligent movement is sufficient.
(B) Section 273 applies because knowingly disobeying such Government quarantine/intercourse rule is punishable even without proof of actual infection.
(C) Section 272 applies because every breach of quarantine is automatically a malignant act.
(D) Section 270 alone applies because breach of quarantine has no separate punishment under BNS.
3. A sweet-maker mixes a harmful chemical in milk-cake so that it becomes noxious as food. The goods are seized before any sale, but the prosecution proves that he intended to sell them as food. Consider the following statements:
1. Section 274 BNS can be attracted even before actual sale, if adulteration is done with intention or knowledge of likely sale.
2. Section 275 BNS necessarily applies merely because the accused intended future sale.
3. For Section 274, the article must be rendered noxious as food or drink.
4. The punishment under Section 274 may extend to one year and fine of Rs. 10,000.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 3 and 4 only
4. A pharmacist dilutes an injection so that its efficacy is lessened and keeps it for sale as if it had not been adulterated. Later, his employee, knowing the adulteration, sells it to a patient as unadulterated. Which of the following propositions is/are correct?
1. The pharmacist may attract Section 276 BNS.
2. The employee may attract Section 277 BNS.
3. If a drug is knowingly sold as a different drug or preparation, Section 278 may apply.
4. Section 277 and Section 278 carry the same maximum imprisonment and same maximum fine.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
5. Consider the following statements regarding BNS Sections 279 to 282:
1. Voluntarily fouling water of a public spring or reservoir so as to render it less fit for ordinary use is punishable under Section 279.
2. Voluntarily vitiating atmosphere so as to make it noxious to health is punishable with fine only.
3. Rash driving or riding on a public way and rash navigation of a vessel carry the same maximum fine.
4. Rash navigation of a vessel carries a higher maximum fine than rash driving or riding on a public way.
Which of the above are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
6. A factory emits smoke which causes serious annoyance to residents of the entire locality and also obstructs persons using a public road nearby. The owner argues that the factory gives employment to 500 workers and therefore the nuisance is excused. Under Section 270 BNS, which statement is correct?
(A) The nuisance is excused if the accused proves that the act causes economic convenience or public advantage.
(B) A common nuisance is not excused merely because it causes some convenience or advantage.
(C) Section 270 applies only where injury is caused to a specific individual and not to the public in general.
(D) Section 270 requires proof of actual bodily injury and cannot apply to obstruction or annoyance.
7. Consider the following statements under BNSS Sections 307 and 308:
1. The State Government may determine the language of each Court within the State, other than the High Court.
2. Evidence must generally be taken in the presence of the accused, or where personal attendance is dispensed with, in the presence of his advocate.
3. Evidence may be taken through audio-video electronic means at the designated place notified by the State Government.
4. In recording evidence of a woman below eighteen years alleged to have been subjected to rape or other sexual offence, the Court may prevent confrontation with the accused while preserving the right of cross-examination.
Which of the above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
8. In a summons-case before a Magistrate, a witness gives short evidence. In a warrant-case, another witness gives lengthy technical evidence. In a Sessions trial, a third witness gives evidence before the Sessions Judge. Which of the following is correctly stated?
(A) In summons-cases, a full verbatim deposition must always be recorded in question-answer form.
(B) In warrant-cases before a Magistrate, evidence is ordinarily taken in narrative form, though question-answer form may be used in discretion.
(C) In Sessions trials, evidence is signed by the Magistrate who committed the case.
(D) In summons-cases, the memorandum of substance of evidence is not part of the record unless signed by the accused.
9. Evidence of a witness is recorded in English although the language of the Court is not English. None of the parties requires translation into the language of the Court. The witness later denies the correctness of one portion when it is read over. Which is the correct position under BNSS?
(A) The Court must always prepare translation even if English recording is accepted by all parties.
(B) The Court may dispense with translation where evidence is taken in English and translation is not required by any party.
(C) If the witness denies correctness, the Judge must necessarily delete that portion and cannot record a memorandum of objection.
(D) Evidence once recorded cannot be read over to the witness in the presence of the accused or advocate.
10. Under BNSS Section 316, which of the following statements regarding examination of accused is/are correct?
1. The whole examination, including every question and answer, shall be recorded in full.
2. The record shall be shown or read to the accused, and he may explain or add to his answers.
3. The record must be signed by the accused and by the Magistrate or presiding Judge.
4. Where the accused is in custody and examined through electronic communication, his signature shall be taken within seventy-two hours.
5. The section applies in full to examination of an accused in a summary trial.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(B) 1, 3 and 5 only
(C) 2, 4 and 5 only
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
11. A prosecution witness residing in a remote district cannot be brought to Court without unreasonable expense and delay. The accused is represented by an advocate. Which of the following statements about commission for examination of witnesses under BNSS is correct?
(A) Commission can be issued only when the accused consents in writing.
(B) The Court may issue commission where examination is necessary for ends of justice and attendance cannot be procured without unreasonable delay, expense or inconvenience.
(C) Parties can only send written interrogatories and can never appear through advocate before the officer executing commission.
(D) A commission can never be issued for examination of high constitutional functionaries.
12. A sues B for possession of land, claiming that C’s will gave the land to A. B is already in possession and denies the will. In another case, A sues B on a bond; execution of the bond is admitted, but B pleads fraud. Which statement best reflects Sections 104 and 105 BSA?
(A) In both cases, the burden lies on B because he denies A’s claim.
(B) In the land case the burden lies on A; in the bond case, burden of proving fraud lies on B.
(C) In the land case the burden lies on B because possession must always be justified by title.
(D) In the bond case the burden lies on A to disprove fraud even before B gives any evidence.
13. Consider the following statements under BSA Sections 106 and 107:
1. If prosecution wants the Court to believe that the accused admitted theft to C, prosecution must prove that admission.
2. If the accused wants the Court to believe that he was elsewhere at the relevant time, the accused must prove that particular fact.
3. A person who wants to prove a dying declaration must prove the death of the maker.
4. A person who wants to lead secondary evidence of a lost document must first prove that the document has been lost.
Which of the above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
14. X is charged with grievous hurt but pleads that the case falls within a special exception in the BNS. In a separate murder case, Y pleads unsoundness of mind; in another, Z pleads grave and sudden provocation. Under BSA Section 108, which statement is correct?
(A) The prosecution must disprove every possible exception before the accused raises it.
(B) The accused bears the burden of proving circumstances bringing his case within a general or special exception, and the Court shall presume absence of such circumstances.
(C) The burden shifts to the complainant only after the accused files a written statement.
(D) The accused can never rely upon exceptions in criminal cases after framing of charge.
15. A person is proved to have been alive twenty-six years ago, and a litigant asserts that he is now dead. In another case, a passenger is prosecuted for travelling without a railway ticket and claims he had a valid ticket which was lost. Which statement is most accurate under BSA Sections 109 and 110?
(A) In both cases, burden lies on prosecution alone because they involve negative facts.
(B) The person affirming death must prove death; the passenger must prove the ticket because it is especially within his knowledge.
(C) Once a person is shown to be alive within thirty years, the Court must conclusively presume that he is alive.
(D) A railway ticket is never a fact especially within the knowledge of the accused passenger.
16. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer:
List I
A. General duties of partners
B. Duty to indemnify for loss caused by fraud
C. Conduct of business
D. Personal profits earned by partners
List II
I. Section 12
II. Section 16
III. Section 9
IV. Section 10
(A) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(C) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(D) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
17. In a partnership firm, three partners by majority decide to change a textile trading business into a real estate development business. The dissenting partner demands inspection of books and objects that the nature of business cannot be changed by majority. Subject to contract between partners, which statement is correct?
(A) Majority can decide all matters, including change in nature of business, if notice is given.
(B) Ordinary matters may be decided by majority after giving partners right of opinion, but change in nature of business requires consent of all partners.
(C) A dissenting partner has no right to inspect books once majority decision is taken.
(D) A partner has right to inspect books only after dissolution of the firm.
18. Consider the following propositions under Section 13 of the Indian Partnership Act:
1. A partner is not entitled to remuneration for taking part in conduct of business, subject to contract.
2. Partners are entitled to share profits equally and shall contribute equally to losses, subject to contract.
3. Interest on capital, where payable, shall be payable only out of profits.
4. A partner making an advance beyond agreed capital is entitled to interest at six per cent per annum, subject to contract.
Which of the above are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
19. Partner A deliberately submits forged purchase bills and causes loss to the firm. The partnership deed contains a general clause that “no partner shall be accountable to the firm for loss caused during business unless all partners consent to recovery.” Which is the most accurate statement?
(A) A cannot be made liable because duties of partners are entirely contractual.
(B) A must indemnify the firm for loss caused by his fraud in conduct of firm business.
(C) A is liable only if the fraud was committed outside firm business.
(D) A is liable only if a third party first sues the firm.
20. A partner uses the firm’s goodwill and customer database to secure a secret commission from a supplier. Another partner starts a competing business of the same nature and earns profit from it. Subject to contract between partners, which statement is correct?
(A) Only secret commission is accountable, but competing business profits are never accountable.
(B) Both the secret profit from firm connection and profit from competing same-nature business must be accounted for and paid to the firm.
(C) Competing business profit is payable only if the firm proves actual loss.
(D) Secret profit is personal property because the partner alone negotiated it.
21. A firm originally constituted for five years continues business after expiry of the term without any fresh agreement. Later, one new partner is introduced, and the firm also undertakes an additional allied venture. Under Section 17, subject to contract, which statement is correct?
(A) All mutual rights and duties automatically come to an end on expiry of the original term.
(B) Rights and duties continue as far as consistent with partnership at will after expiry; after change in constitution they remain same as far as may be.
(C) Any additional undertaking is treated as a separate firm with no relation to original duties.
(D) Expiry of fixed term converts every partner into a creditor of the firm.
22. Which of the following is correct regarding firm property under Sections 14 and 15 of the Indian Partnership Act?
1. Firm property includes goodwill, subject to contract between partners.
2. Property acquired with money belonging to the firm is deemed to have been acquired for the firm unless contrary intention appears.
3. Firm property shall be held and used by partners exclusively for purposes of business, subject to contract.
4. Property brought into firm stock can never become firm property unless registered in the firm’s name.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
23. Partner B, without informing other partners, purchases ordinary raw material from C for the firm’s usual manufacturing business and signs the order in the firm name. Which principle is most accurate?
(A) A partner is not an agent of the firm unless separately appointed by power of attorney.
(B) A partner is agent of the firm for purposes of firm business, and an act done in the usual way may bind the firm.
(C) The firm is bound only if all partners personally sign the purchase order.
(D) Implied authority exists only for immovable property transactions.
24. Which of the following acts is ordinarily outside a partner’s implied authority under Section 19, unless usage/custom or express authority permits it?
1. Submitting a dispute relating to firm business to arbitration.
2. Opening a bank account on behalf of the firm in the partner’s own name.
3. Compromising or relinquishing a claim of the firm.
4. Purchasing ordinary stock-in-trade in the usual course of firm business.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
25. A partnership deed restricts partner C from borrowing more than Rs. 50,000. C borrows Rs. 2,00,000 from a new supplier for a transaction apparently in the usual course of business. The supplier has no knowledge of the restriction. Which is correct under Section 20?
(A) The restriction always binds every third party whether known or unknown.
(B) The restriction does not affect a third party who does not know of it, if the act is otherwise within implied authority.
(C) The firm is never bound by borrowings made by a partner.
(D) The restriction is void against the partners themselves but valid against third parties.
26. A notice of defect in goods is given to partner D, who habitually acts in the firm’s purchase department. D suppresses it because he himself committed fraud upon the firm in that transaction. Which statement best reflects Section 24?
(A) Notice to any partner is always notice to the firm, even where fraud is committed by that partner.
(B) Notice to a partner who habitually acts in firm business is generally notice to the firm, except in case of fraud on the firm committed by or with consent of that partner.
(C) Notice to a partner can never be notice to the firm unless all partners receive it.
(D) Notice to a partner is notice only after publication in official gazette.
27. A creditor sues only one partner for a debt incurred by the firm while that person was a partner. The partner argues that liability must first be divided equally among all partners and he can be sued only for his share. Which is correct?
(A) Every partner is liable jointly with all other partners and also severally for all acts of the firm done while he is a partner.
(B) A partner is liable only for profits actually received by him from the transaction.
(C) A partner is never personally liable for firm debts.
(D) A partner can be sued only after dissolution and settlement of accounts.
28. Partner E, while acting in the ordinary course of a delivery business, negligently injures a customer’s goods. In another case, E commits a wrongful act wholly outside the ordinary course and without authority. Which statement is correct under Section 26?
(A) The firm is liable for every wrongful act of every partner whether connected with firm business or not.
(B) The firm is liable to the same extent as the partner where the wrongful act is done in ordinary course of firm business or with authority.
(C) The firm is never liable for wrongful acts; only the individual partner is liable.
(D) The firm is liable only if all partners expressly ratify the wrongful act after it occurs.
29. Partner F receives money from a client within his apparent authority and misapplies it. In another case, the firm receives client money in ordinary course of business, and partner G misapplies it while it is in firm custody. Which statement is correct under Section 27?
(A) The firm is liable only in the first case and never in the second.
(B) The firm is liable only in the second case and never in the first.
(C) The firm may be liable in both cases of misapplication described.
(D) The firm is liable only if the client proves that all partners personally handled the money.
30. X allows his name to be used on the letterhead of a firm, knowing that suppliers are treating him as a partner. Supplier Y gives credit to the firm on faith of that representation. Later X says he never signed the partnership deed. Which is the correct position under the doctrine of holding out?
(A) X cannot be liable unless he actually shared profits.
(B) X may be liable as a partner to Y if Y gave credit on faith of X’s representation or permitted representation.
(C) X is liable only if the firm is registered.
(D) Holding out applies only after dissolution of a firm.
31. Consider the following statements regarding the G20 Johannesburg Summit 2025:
1. It was held in South Africa on 22-23 November 2025.
2. It was the first G20 Leaders’ Summit convened on the African continent.
3. The theme was “Solidarity, Equality and Sustainability.”
4. G20 has a permanent secretariat headquartered in Johannesburg.
Which of the above are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
32. Consider the following statements regarding G20 2025 outcomes and future G20 meetings:
1. Mission 300 refers to efforts to connect 300 million people to electricity in Africa by 2030.
2. The G20 Leaders’ Declaration records that members would work under the United States’ Presidency in 2026.
3. The Declaration records that the next meetings would be in the United Kingdom in 2027.
4. The Declaration records that the meeting would be in the Republic of Korea in 2028.
Which of the above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
33. Consider the following statements regarding COP30:
1. COP30 was hosted by Brazil in Belem.
2. The leaders’ climate summit took place on 6-7 November 2025, while COP30 negotiations brought parties together from 10-21 November 2025.
3. COP30 marked ten years since adoption of the Paris Agreement and twenty years since entry into force of the Kyoto Protocol.
4. COP30 was formally hosted by the UAE as continuation of COP28.
Which of the above are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
34. Which statements regarding the 17th BRICS Summit 2025 are correct?
1. It was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, on 6-7 July 2025.
2. Its theme was “Strengthening Global South Cooperation for a More Inclusive and Sustainable Governance.”
3. Brazil held the BRICS chairship before handing over presidency to India.
4. The summit declaration was called the New Delhi Declaration 2025.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
35. Consider the following statements regarding the 46th ASEAN Summit held in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia:
1. The Chairman’s Statement of the 46th ASEAN Summit was dated 26 May 2025.
2. Malaysia’s ASEAN Chairmanship theme was “Inclusivity and Sustainability.”
3. ASEAN adopted the Kuala Lumpur Declaration on ASEAN 2045: Our Shared Future.
4. The summit was chaired by Indonesia under the theme “ASEAN Matters: Epicentrum of Growth.”
Which of the above are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
36. Consider the following statements regarding the 6th BIMSTEC Summit:
1. It was held in Bangkok, Thailand, on 4 April 2025.
2. Its theme was “Prosperous, Resilient, and Open BIMSTEC.”
3. BIMSTEC Bangkok Vision 2030 was adopted as the first-ever Vision Document of BIMSTEC.
4. The Agreement on Maritime Transport Cooperation was rejected and not signed.
Which of the above are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
37. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer:
List I
A. G20 Johannesburg Summit 2025
B. COP30
C. 17th BRICS Summit 2025
D. 6th BIMSTEC Summit
List II
I. Bangkok Vision 2030
II. Rio de Janeiro Declaration
III. First G20 Leaders’ Summit on African continent
IV. Belem, Brazil
(A) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(B) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(C) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(D) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
38. Statement-Assumption
Statement: “The High Court administration has made e-filing compulsory for all ordinary matters for two weeks, while allowing physical filing for urgent bail matters, because the old filing counters are being shifted to a digital record room.”
Assumptions:
I. Ordinary matters can be filed electronically without substantially defeating access to filing.
II. Urgent bail matters require an exception because delay may affect personal liberty.
III. Digital filing will permanently replace every form of physical filing in all future proceedings.
(A) I and II are implicit
(B) II and III are implicit
(C) I and III are implicit
(D) All are implicit
39. Statement-Conclusion
Statement: “All candidates who scored above 70 in the preliminary legal test were permitted to sit in the advanced drafting test. Some candidates permitted to sit in the advanced drafting test did not attend the evidence workshop.”
Conclusions:
I. Some candidates who scored above 70 did not attend the evidence workshop.
II. Every candidate permitted for advanced drafting had scored above 70.
III. At least some candidates permitted for advanced drafting did not attend the evidence workshop.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) I and II follow
(D) II and III follow
40. Statement-Conclusion
Statement: “Only candidates who submitted their documents before 5 PM were issued interview slips. Some candidates from Centre A were issued interview slips. No candidate issued an interview slip was exempted from biometric verification.”
Conclusions:
I. Some candidates from Centre A submitted their documents before 5 PM.
II. Some candidates from Centre A were not exempted from biometric verification.
III. All candidates who submitted documents before 5 PM were issued interview slips.
(A) I and II follow
(B) II and III follow
(C) I and III follow
(D) All follow
41. Statement-Assumption
Statement: “The Government has introduced a discounted monthly bus pass for students residing more than 15 km from their college to reduce absence in morning classes.”
Assumptions:
I. Distance and travel cost may be contributing to absence in morning classes.
II. Discounted transport may encourage regular attendance among eligible students.
III. Students residing within 15 km never remain absent from morning classes.
(A) I and II are implicit
(B) II and III are implicit
(C) I and III are implicit
(D) All are implicit
42. Statement-Conclusion
Statement: “Either the climate briefing will be held in Hall A or all delegates will be moved to Hall C. The climate briefing was not held in Hall A. If all delegates are moved to Hall C, media entry will be restricted.”
Conclusions:
I. All delegates will be moved to Hall C.
II. Media entry will be restricted.
III. The climate briefing will necessarily be cancelled.
(A) I and II follow
(B) II and III follow
(C) I and III follow
(D) All follow
43. Statement-Assumption
Statement: “The examination board has notified that answers based on repealed IPC, CrPC or Evidence Act provisions will not be accepted where the question specifically asks under BNS, BNSS or BSA.”
Assumptions:
I. Some candidates may still rely upon repealed provisions despite the new statutory reference.
II. The board wants answers to be evaluated on the applicable statute mentioned in the question.
III. Every provision of the repealed statutes is word-for-word identical to the new statutes.
(A) I and II are implicit
(B) II and III are implicit
(C) I and III are implicit
(D) All are implicit
44. Statement-Conclusion
Statement: “Every candidate who solved the statement-assumption section attempted current affairs. No candidate who skipped the Partnership Act section solved the statement-assumption section. Rohan skipped the Partnership Act section but attempted current affairs.”
Conclusions:
I. Rohan solved the statement-assumption section.
II. Rohan did not solve the statement-assumption section.
III. At least one candidate who attempted current affairs did not solve statement-assumption.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) II and III follow
(D) I and III follow
45. Statement-Assumption
Statement: “The coaching centre has decided to conduct one combined test on summits and statement-conclusion reasoning because students are scoring well in isolated topics but poorly when factual recall and logical elimination are mixed.”
Assumptions:
I. Mixed-question practice may reveal weaknesses not visible in isolated-topic practice.
II. Students’ poor performance in mixed sets may be due to difficulty in combining recall with elimination.
III. Students who score well in isolated topics will always score full marks in mixed tests after one attempt.
(A) I and II are implicit
(B) II and III are implicit
(C) I and III are implicit
(D) All are implicit
ANSWER KEY WITH ONE-LINER EXPLANATIONS
1-A — Correct matching is S.270 public nuisance, S.271 negligent infection, S.273 quarantine rule, and S.282 rash navigation.
2-B — S.273 punishes knowing disobedience of quarantine or intercourse rules even without actual infection being proved.
3-A — S.274 covers adulteration intended or likely for sale; actual sale is not needed, and statement 4 states the wrong punishment.
4-D — S.276, S.277 and S.278 cover adulterated drugs and sale as different drug or preparation; all four statements are correct.
5-A — S.279 covers fouling public water, S.280 is fine-only, and S.282 carries higher fine than S.281.
6-B — Public nuisance is not excused merely because it gives some convenience or advantage.
7-D — BNSS S.307 and S.308 support all four statements on court language, presence, video means and minor woman witness protection.
8-B — In warrant-cases, evidence is ordinarily narrative, but question-answer form may be used in discretion.
9-B — English evidence need not be translated if parties do not require translation into court language.
10-A — S.316 excludes summary trial, so statements 1 to 4 only are correct.
11-B — Commission may issue where attendance cannot be procured without unreasonable delay, expense or inconvenience.
12-B — A must prove title or will in the land claim; B must prove fraud when bond execution is admitted.
13-D — Each party must prove the particular fact or admissibility fact on which it relies.
14-B — Accused bears burden to prove facts bringing the case within a general or special exception.
15-B — Death must be proved by the person affirming it; ticket possession is especially within the passenger’s knowledge.
16-A — S.9, S.10, S.12 and S.16 match general duties, fraud indemnity, conduct and personal profits respectively.
17-B — Ordinary matters may be decided by majority, but change in nature of business requires consent of all partners.
18-D — S.13 supports all four rules on remuneration, equal profits and losses, interest on capital and advances.
19-B — S.10 makes a partner liable to indemnify the firm for loss caused by fraud in firm business.
20-B — Secret profit and competing same-nature business profit are both accountable to the firm.
21-B — S.17 continues mutual rights and duties after change, expiry of term and additional undertaking as far as applicable.
22-A — Firm property includes goodwill and property bought with firm money; registration in firm’s name is not mandatory.
23-B — A partner is agent of the firm, and usual-course acts may bind the firm.
24-A — Arbitration, own-name bank account and compromise or relinquishment of firm claim are outside implied authority.
25-B — Restriction on implied authority does not bind a third party who has no knowledge of it.
26-B — Notice to an acting partner is notice to firm, except fraud on firm by or with that partner.
27-A — Every partner is jointly and severally liable for firm acts done while he is partner.
28-B — Firm is liable where wrongful act is in ordinary course of business or with authority.
29-C — Firm may be liable both for money received by partner within authority and money received by firm.
30-B — Holding out makes X liable if credit was given on faith of his represented partnership.
31-A — G20 2025 was in South Africa, first in Africa, with the stated theme; G20 has no permanent Johannesburg secretariat.
32-D — Mission 300 and future G20 presidency or meeting references for 2026, 2027 and 2028 are correctly stated.
33-A — COP30 was in Belem, Brazil, in 2025; UAE hosting statement is incorrect.
34-A — BRICS 2025 was in Rio with the stated Global South theme; the declaration was not New Delhi Declaration.
35-A — The 46th ASEAN Summit was Kuala Lumpur/Malaysia with Inclusivity and Sustainability; Indonesia theme is wrong.
36-A — BIMSTEC 2025 was Bangkok with the stated theme and Bangkok Vision 2030; maritime agreement was signed, not rejected.
37-A — Correct matching is G20-Africa first, COP30-Belem, BRICS-Rio Declaration, and BIMSTEC-Bangkok Vision 2030.
38-A — E-filing assumes ordinary filing can continue digitally and urgent bail needs a liberty-based exception.
39-B — Only conclusion III directly follows: some advanced-test candidates did not attend the evidence workshop.
40-A — Interview slip implies timely documents and biometric non-exemption; the reverse of timely documents does not follow.
41-A — Discounted pass assumes distance or cost affects absence and lower travel cost may improve attendance.
42-A — Since Hall A is ruled out, Hall C follows; therefore media restriction follows.
43-A — The board assumes candidates may use repealed provisions and wants answers under the applicable new statutes.
44-C — Rohan skipped Partnership, so he did not solve assumption; he also proves at least one current-affairs attempter did not solve it.
45-A — Mixed test assumes combined recall-elimination practice may reveal weaknesses; full marks after one attempt is not assumed.