1. Under BNS S.335, which of the following may amount to making a false electronic record?
(A) Dishonestly transmitting an electronic record so that it is believed to have been made by another authority.
(B) Opening a genuine email sent by the sender.
(C) Printing a certified copy obtained from a lawful source.
(D) Correcting spelling in one’s own unsigned note.
2. A dishonestly alters a material part of an executed electronic record without lawful authority. Which part of BNS S.335 is most relevant?
(A) Making a false document/electronic record by material alteration.
(B) Defamation by electronic publication.
(C) Property mark counterfeiting.
(D) Criminal intimidation.
3. Under BNS S.339, possession of a forged document described in S.337 or S.338 is punishable when accompanied by:
(A) knowledge that it is forged and intention to use it as genuine.
(B) mere accidental custody without knowledge.
(C) ownership of a printing press.
(D) a pending civil suit between parties.
4. Which combination is correctly matched?
(A) BNS S.341 — counterfeit seal etc. with intent to commit forgery punishable under S.338.
(B) BNS S.341 — public nuisance.
(C) BNS S.341 — compounding of offences.
(D) BNS S.341 — bail in bailable cases.
5. Under BNS S.343, fraudulent cancellation or destruction is specifically related to:
(A) will, authority to adopt or valuable security.
(B) only ordinary sale invoices.
(C) every oral contract.
(D) police case diary.
6. BNS S.350 deals with:
(A) making a false mark upon any receptacle containing goods.
(B) making atmosphere noxious to health.
(C) giving false evidence.
(D) withdrawal from prosecution.
7. Under BNS S.353, statements conducing to public mischief are distinguishable from defamation because the section is primarily concerned with:
(A) public mischief through specified statements affecting public order/classes, not merely individual reputation.
(B) breach of a private sale contract.
(C) dishonest taking of movable property.
(D) failure to appear on a bail bond.
8. Under BNS S.355, misconduct in public by a drunken person requires misconduct in a public place or place where he trespasses, causing:
(A) annoyance to any person.
(B) wrongful gain by deception.
(C) forgery of a public register.
(D) fraudulent cancellation of a will.
9. Under BNSS S.482, anticipatory bail is correctly described as:
(A) direction for grant of bail to a person apprehending arrest.
(B) release after conviction pending appeal only.
(C) remission of sentence by Government.
(D) compensation to a victim.
10. BNSS S.483 confers special bail powers on:
(A) the High Court or Court of Session.
(B) the investigating officer alone.
(C) the complainant.
(D) the Registrar of Firms.
11. Under BNSS S.491, when a bond is forfeited, the Court proceeds according to:
(A) the statutory procedure for forfeiture and recovery/show cause.
(B) automatic conviction for the original offence.
(C) immediate acquittal of the accused.
(D) private settlement between surety and complainant.
12. Under BNSS S.497, property pending trial may be dealt with by:
(A) order for custody and disposal of property pending trial in appropriate cases.
(B) automatic sale in every case.
(C) retention by the complainant without order.
(D) destruction irrespective of evidentiary value.
13. Under BNSS S.506 and S.507, the distinction is that:
(A) some irregularities do not vitiate proceedings, while specified irregularities do vitiate proceedings.
(B) both provisions only deal with bail bonds.
(C) both provisions make every error fatal.
(D) both provisions relate only to transfer of cases.
14. Under BSA S.148, cross-examination as to previous statements in writing is aimed at:
(A) confronting the witness with prior written statements in the manner required by law.
(B) preventing all contradiction by previous statements.
(C) proving every prior statement without showing it to the witness.
(D) replacing examination-in-chief.
15. Under BSA S.162, refreshing memory permits a witness to refer to writings in circumstances allowed by law. Which statement is correct?
(A) It does not make every writing substantive evidence merely because it refreshed memory.
(B) It bars cross-examination on the writing.
(C) It applies only to police officers.
(D) It makes hearsay admissible in every case.
16. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List I
A. Strait of Malacca
B. Strait of Hormuz
C. Bosporus
D. Bab-el-Mandeb
List II
1. Black Sea and Sea of Marmara
2. Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman
3. Red Sea and Gulf of Aden
4. Indian Ocean route and South China Sea region
Code:
(A) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(B) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
(C) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
(D) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
17. The Suez Canal connects:
(A) the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea.
(B) the Black Sea and the Caspian Sea.
(C) the North Sea and the Baltic Sea.
(D) the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal.
18. The Panama Canal is significant because it connects:
(A) the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans.
(B) the Mediterranean and Red Seas.
(C) the Persian Gulf and Arabian Sea.
(D) the Baltic and Black Seas.
19. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
(A) Nathu La — Sikkim
(B) Shipki La — Himachal Pradesh
(C) Zoji La — Kashmir/Ladakh region
(D) Palghat Gap — Arunachal Pradesh
20. Consider the following port-country pairs:
1. Rotterdam — Netherlands
2. Shanghai — China
3. Gwadar — Pakistan
4. Chabahar — Iran
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
21. Which one of the following seas is landlocked?
(A) Caribbean Sea
(B) Caspian Sea
(C) Arabian Sea
(D) Coral Sea
22. Consider the following statements:
1. The Bay of Bengal lies east of India.
2. The Arabian Sea lies west of India.
3. Sri Lanka is separated from India by the Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 3 only
23. The International Astronomical Union approved the name “Statio Shiv Shakti” for:
(A) the Chandrayaan-3 Vikram landing site on the Moon.
(B) India’s first aircraft carrier.
(C) a new naval missile system.
(D) a G20 summit venue.
24. As per the Global Gender Gap Report 2025, India was ranked:
(A) 91st out of 148 countries.
(B) 111th out of 148 countries.
(C) 131st out of 148 countries.
(D) 148th out of 148 countries.
25. India’s real GDP growth for FY 2024-25, as per official provisional estimates released in May 2025, was:
(A) 4.5%
(B) 5.5%
(C) 6.5%
(D) 8.5%
26. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(A) Global Gender Gap Report — World Economic Forum
(B) Human Development Index — International Cricket Council
(C) World Happiness Report — Supreme Court of India
(D) Ease of Doing Business — Indian Olympic Association
27. Consider the following statements on space and economy:
1. “Statio Shiv Shakti” relates to Chandrayaan-3.
2. Global Gender Gap Report is released by the World Economic Forum.
3. GDP at constant prices is used for measuring real growth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 only
28. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(A) INS Vikrant — Aircraft carrier
(B) Chandrayaan-3 — Solar mission
(C) Aditya-L1 — Lunar lander
(D) Statio Shiv Shakti — Defence corridor
29. In reports and indices, “rank” should be read carefully because:
(A) rank and percentile are always identical numerical measures.
(B) a country’s rank can change even if its score changes only slightly, depending on other countries’ performance.
(C) a higher rank number always means better performance.
(D) ranks measure only absolute marks and not relative position.
30. Which one of the following combinations is correctly associated with current affairs revision?
(A) PIB/MoSPI — GDP estimates; WEF — Global Gender Gap Report; IAU — planetary nomenclature
(B) ICC — GDP estimates; MoSPI — Khel Ratna; WEF — cricket rankings
(C) IAU — Padma Awards; Supreme Court — Oscars; FIFA — Gender Gap Index
(D) RBI — Oscar Awards; Academy — Indian GDP estimates; ICC — planetary names
31. Under Hindu succession law, Class I heirs are preferred over:
(A) all heirs equally without order.
(B) agnates before Class I heirs when the property is ancestral.
(C) Class II heirs.
(D) cognates before Class I.
32. If a male Hindu dies intestate leaving Class I heirs, succession generally devolves upon:
(A) the State immediately.
(B) the executor named in a private family note.
(C) only heirs related through male lineage.
(D) Class I heirs according to the statutory scheme.
33. Agnates are related to the deceased:
(A) by marriage only.
(B) only by testamentary appointment after death.
(C) wholly through females.
(D) wholly through males.
34. Cognates are related to the deceased:
(A) only by a private family arrangement without statutory basis.
(B) only through male line.
(C) not wholly through males.
(D) only by residence in the same village.
35. After the statutory recognition of daughters as coparceners, a daughter in a Mitakshara coparcenary:
(A) has rights only if there is no surviving son.
(B) has only a right to maintenance until partition.
(C) is excluded from succession where sons exist.
(D) has rights by birth in the same manner as a son, subject to the statute and case law.
36. Partition of coparcenary property requires:
(A) a decree declaring status before succession opens.
(B) a sale of goods contract.
(C) consent of all other Class I heirs in every case.
(D) division of status/property according to law, not mere casual quarrel.
37. A widow as a Class I heir:
(A) has no right if there is a son.
(B) can inherit as provided by the Hindu Succession Act.
(C) inherits only if there is no son or daughter.
(D) can inherit only with permission of the local marriage registrar in every case.
38. A mother of a male Hindu intestate is:
(A) excluded whenever there are male heirs in the same class.
(B) a Class I heir.
(C) only a Class II heir after cousins.
(D) a stranger to succession.
39. Where no Class I heir exists, succession may move to:
(A) Class II heirs according to the statutory order.
(B) local revenue office.
(C) collateral relatives outside the statutory class.
(D) employer of deceased.
40. A natural guardian under Hindu minority law is subject to:
(A) the buyer’s convenience only.
(B) unlimited power to sell minor’s property at will.
(C) oral instructions of relatives only.
(D) the welfare of the minor and statutory restrictions.
41. The father and mother are natural guardians in the statutory order for a Hindu minor, but:
(A) guardianship depends solely on seniority among male relatives.
(B) mother’s claim is excluded whenever the father’s relatives object.
(C) custody of a child below the specified age may ordinarily be with the mother as the Act provides.
(D) father can sell all property without restriction.
42. A guardian cannot ordinarily dispose of a minor’s immovable property without:
(A) legal necessity/benefit and statutory permission where required.
(B) a private declaration by the proposed guardian.
(C) consent of village elders in every case.
(D) a certificate from the local revenue official.
43. Illegitimate children under Hindu succession law:
(A) inherit only after obtaining permission from the Registrar of Firms.
(B) inherit only where no Class I heir survives.
(C) may have rights as recognised by statute and case law, but cannot be treated identically in every context without checking the rule.
(D) inherit from every relative equally.
44. A female Hindu dying intestate is governed by:
(A) the special order of succession provided for female Hindus in the Act.
(B) rules relating to adoption and maintenance.
(C) only the order applicable to ancestral property.
(D) company law.
45. A question on Hindu succession should first identify:
(A) only the district where death occurred.
(B) only the age of the eldest relative.
(C) only the occupation of heirs.
(D) the sex of the deceased, nature of property, class of heirs and whether succession is intestate or testamentary.
ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATIONS
1. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.335 includes false electronic records and false attribution of authority.
2. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.335 expressly covers dishonest or fraudulent material alteration of documents/electronic records.
3. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.339 requires knowledge and intention to use the forged document as genuine.
4. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.341 concerns counterfeit seal/material for serious forgery linked with S.338.
5. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.343 covers fraudulent cancellation/destruction of will, authority to adopt or valuable security.
6. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.350 is part of property-mark offences concerning false marks on receptacles.
7. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.353 targets public mischief caused by specified statements.
8. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.355 deals with drunken misconduct causing annoyance in specified places.
9. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.482 deals with direction for grant of bail to a person apprehending arrest.
10. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.483 concerns special powers of High Court and Court of Session regarding bail.
11. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.491 provides the procedure when a bond has been forfeited.
12. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.497 concerns custody and disposal of property pending trial.
13. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS Ss.506-507 distinguish curable and vitiating irregularities.
14. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BSA S.148 governs use of previous written statements in cross-examination.
15. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BSA S.162 concerns refreshing memory without automatically converting the writing into substantive proof.
16. Answer: (A)
Explanation: The straits are correctly matched with their connected water bodies/routes.
17. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Suez connects the Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.
18. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Panama connects the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans.
19. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Palghat Gap is in Kerala/Tamil Nadu region, not Arunachal Pradesh.
20. Answer: (D)
Explanation: All four port-country pairs are correctly matched.
21. Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Caspian Sea is landlocked.
22. Answer: (C)
Explanation: All three statements correctly describe India’s surrounding waters.
23. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Statio Shiv Shakti is the approved name for the Chandrayaan-3 Vikram landing site.
24. Answer: (C)
Explanation: India ranked 131st out of 148 countries in the Global Gender Gap Report 2025.
25. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Official provisional estimates placed real GDP growth for FY 2024-25 at 6.5%.
26. Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Global Gender Gap Report is released by the World Economic Forum.
27. Answer: (B)
Explanation: All three statements are correct.
28. Answer: (A)
Explanation: INS Vikrant is an aircraft carrier.
29. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Rank is comparative and may move with others’ performance even when score changes modestly.
30. Answer: (A)
Explanation: The organisations are correctly matched with the relevant current-affairs areas.
31. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Class I heirs exclude lower categories.
32. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Class I heirs inherit first.
33. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Agnatic relationship is through males.
34. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Cognates involve relationship not wholly through males.
35. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Daughters have coparcenary rights by birth under the amended law.
36. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Partition must satisfy legal requirements.
37. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Widow is a Class I heir.
38. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Mother is listed as Class I heir.
39. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Class II heirs are considered when no Class I heirs exist.
40. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Minor’s welfare and statutory limits control guardianship.
41. Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Act recognises the mother’s ordinary custody in early childhood.
42. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Disposal of minor’s property is strictly controlled.
43. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Rights depend on the precise statutory provision and case law.
44. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Female succession has specific statutory rules.
45. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Succession analysis depends on these statutory facts.