1. Under BNS S.356, which of the following best reflects the structure of defamation?
(A) Imputation concerning a person with intention, knowledge or reason to believe that it will harm reputation, subject to exceptions.
(B) Every criticism of public conduct is automatically punishable.
(C) Defamation requires physical injury in every case.
(D) Defamation applies only to forged documents.
2. Which of the following is a recognised distinction under BNS S.356?
(A) Imputations on conduct of public servants/public questions may fall within exceptions if made in good faith as permitted by law.
(B) Truth is irrelevant in every defamation case.
(C) Good faith has no role in exceptions.
(D) A statement about a deceased person can never be defamatory.
3. Under BNS S.357, breach of contract to attend on and supply wants of helpless person concerns:
(A) failure by a person bound by contract to attend/supply wants of a helpless person, causing legally relevant risk or harm.
(B) every breach of a commercial supply contract.
(C) refusal to repay a loan.
(D) breach of a partnership deed.
4. Under BNS S.358, the repeal and savings provision is relevant because:
(A) it preserves legal consequences and continuity in the manner provided despite repeal of earlier law.
(B) it defines theft.
(C) it creates bail in bailable offences.
(D) it governs evidence of hostile witnesses.
5. Under BNSS S.514, limitation affects criminal proceedings by barring:
(A) taking cognizance after expiry of the prescribed limitation period, subject to statutory provisions.
(B) filing of every appeal after judgment.
(C) grant of bail in bailable offences.
(D) cross-examination of prosecution witnesses.
6. BNSS S.515 on commencement of limitation is relevant for deciding:
(A) the point from which the limitation period begins to run.
(B) whether an offence is compoundable.
(C) whether an accused is a competent witness.
(D) whether a document is forged.
7. Under BNSS S.516, exclusion of time may become relevant when:
(A) certain periods are to be excluded while computing limitation as provided by statute.
(B) the Court wants to ignore all delay without reasons.
(C) the accused applies for anticipatory bail.
(D) the complainant refuses compromise.
8. Under BNSS S.518, a continuing offence is significant because:
(A) a fresh period of limitation may begin to run at every moment during which the offence continues.
(B) limitation never applies to any offence.
(C) cognizance is automatically barred on the first day.
(D) it applies only to civil suits.
9. BNSS S.519 allows extension of limitation when the Court is satisfied that:
(A) delay has been properly explained or taking cognizance is necessary in the interests of justice.
(B) parties have entered into a private settlement.
(C) the police requests extension without reasons.
(D) the case is non-bailable.
10. BNSS S.528 preserves:
(A) inherent powers of the High Court.
(B) power of police to compound offences.
(C) right of private complainant to withdraw every prosecution.
(D) power of Magistrate to grant divorce.
11. BNSS S.530 is important for modern criminal procedure because it permits:
(A) trial and proceedings to be held in electronic mode as provided.
(B) electronic evidence to be ignored.
(C) all trials to be conducted without accused or counsel.
(D) judgments to be delivered only orally.
12. Under BSA S.141, when admissibility of evidence is questioned, the decision as to admissibility is made by:
(A) the Judge.
(B) the police officer.
(C) the witness under examination.
(D) the complainant.
13. Under BSA S.149, questions lawful in cross-examination may test veracity, discover position in life or:
(A) shake credit by injuring character, subject to statutory control.
(B) compel disclosure of privileged communications without exception.
(C) insult the witness without reasonable grounds.
(D) introduce irrelevant scandalous material as of right.
14. Under BSA S.152, a question should not be asked in cross-examination unless:
(A) the person asking has reasonable grounds for thinking the imputation is well-founded.
(B) the question is scandalous enough to pressure the witness.
(C) the witness is hostile.
(D) the prosecution consents.
15. Under BSA S.169, improper admission or rejection of evidence does not by itself justify a new trial unless:
(A) it has occasioned failure of justice or affected the decision as contemplated by law.
(B) any objection was orally raised.
(C) the evidence related to a public document.
(D) the trial was conducted by a Magistrate.
16. Consider the following statements regarding Haryana:
1. Haryana was formed on 1 November 1966.
2. Chandigarh serves as the capital of Haryana.
3. Haryana was carved out after the linguistic reorganisation of Punjab.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
17. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List I
A. Surajkund
B. Jyotisar
C. Rakhigarhi
D. Morni Hills
List II
1. Harappan archaeological site
2. Panchkula district hill area
3. Crafts Mela/Faridabad
4. Kurukshetra-Gita tradition
Code:
(A) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(B) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(C) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(D) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
18. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
(A) Sultanpur National Park — Gurugram district
(B) Pinjore Gardens — Panchkula district
(C) Sheikh Chilli’s Tomb — Kurukshetra/Thanesar
(D) Rock Garden — Hisar
19. Consider the following Haryana cultural statements:
1. Haryanvi is commonly treated as a regional language/dialect of the State.
2. Ragini and Saang are associated with Haryana’s folk performance tradition.
3. Teej has cultural significance in the region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
20. The three Battles of Panipat were fought in:
(A) 1526, 1556 and 1761.
(B) 1757, 1764 and 1857.
(C) 1191, 1192 and 1526.
(D) 1947, 1965 and 1971.
21. Consider the following Haryana state-emblem/symbol associations:
1. State animal — Blackbuck
2. State tree — Peepal
3. State flower — Lotus
Which of the above is/are correctly matched?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 only
22. Which one of the following is the most appropriate set for Haryana places revision?
(A) Kurukshetra, Panipat, Hisar, Faridabad, Panchkula
(B) Sirsa, Fatehabad, Hisar, Bhiwani, Mahendragarh
(C) Kohima, Mokokchung, Wokha, Tuensang, Phek
(D) Dispur, Majuli, Sivasagar, Silchar, Tezpur
23. Which one of the following correctly matches Haryana with its economic-cultural profile?
(A) Landlocked north Indian State with agriculture, industry, sports and folk-cultural traditions.
(B) Predominantly hill State with horticulture as the sole economic base.
(C) Himalayan State known principally for saffron and apple orchards.
(D) Island territory known for coral reefs and lagoons.
24. In science revision, which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(A) Vitamin C — Scurvy
(B) Iodine deficiency — Night blindness
(C) Vitamin A deficiency — Goitre
(D) Vitamin D deficiency — Beriberi
25. In history revision, which one of the following is correctly matched?
(A) Doctrine of Lapse — Lord Dalhousie
(B) Subsidiary Alliance — Lord Ripon
(C) Dual Government in Bengal — Lord Curzon
(D) Regulating Act, 1773 — Transfer of power to Crown
26. In geography revision, which pair is correctly matched?
(A) Sahara — North Africa
(B) Andes — Europe
(C) Gobi — South America
(D) Alps — Australia
27. In polity revision, which statement is correct?
(A) Fundamental Rights are enforceable through constitutional remedies.
(B) Directive Principles are ordinarily enforceable by writ like Fundamental Rights.
(C) The Preamble is a schedule of municipal taxes.
(D) The Election Commission is a private company.
28. In economy revision, inflation means:
(A) a sustained rise in the general price level.
(B) a fall in population density only.
(C) a rule deciding criminal liability for false evidence.
(D) a form of classical dance.
29. In reasoning, if all judges are lawyers and some lawyers are teachers, which conclusion definitely follows?
(A) All judges are teachers.
(B) Some teachers are judges.
(C) Some lawyers are judges.
(D) No lawyer is a judge.
30. If the average of five numbers is 24 and four numbers are 20, 22, 25 and 27, the fifth number is:
(A) 24
(B) 26
(C) 28
(D) 30
31. A Muslim marriage is generally described as:
(A) a civil contract with religious significance.
(B) a company incorporation.
(C) a penal order passed after conviction.
(D) a sale of goods.
32. Mahr or dower is:
(A) a tax payable on inheritance of joint family property.
(B) a bail bond.
(C) a tax on inheritance.
(D) an amount or property payable by the husband to the wife.
33. Prompt dower is:
(A) payable only after a decree for divorce has already been passed.
(B) payable on demand, subject to the terms of marriage.
(C) a gift by wife to husband.
(D) recoverable only when there is an express written contract.
34. Deferred dower is:
(A) payable before marriage only.
(B) a penalty imposed for matrimonial misconduct.
(C) not part of mahr.
(D) payable at the time agreed or on dissolution/death as recognised by law.
35. Talaq refers to:
(A) a form of divorce under Muslim law.
(B) a gift of immovable property only.
(C) a partnership deed.
(D) a bail order.
36. Khula is generally understood as:
(A) coparcenary partition.
(B) unilateral sale by husband.
(C) a charge of cruelty under penal law.
(D) divorce at the instance of wife with consideration/arrangement as recognised by law.
37. Maintenance of a Muslim wife may involve:
(A) no legal remedy in any situation.
(B) only sale of goods law.
(C) only company law.
(D) personal law principles and statutory remedies depending on facts.
38. A valid hiba generally requires:
(A) a claim for partition before a criminal court.
(B) declaration of gift, acceptance and delivery of possession.
(C) registration of a company.
(D) payment of court fine only.
39. Wakf is:
(A) a bail bond.
(B) sale of goods for price.
(C) permanent dedication of property for a purpose recognised by Muslim law.
(D) temporary lease of a shop only.
40. A mutawalli is:
(A) manager or superintendent of wakf property.
(B) owner of wakf property absolutely.
(C) manager of the joint family business.
(D) buyer in sale of goods.
41. Muslim inheritance is characterised by:
(A) complete testamentary freedom over all property without limits.
(B) equal shares to all persons in the village.
(C) automatic transfer to collateral relatives outside the statutory class.
(D) defined heirs and shares under personal law.
42. Customary law can be applied only when the custom is:
(A) casually asserted without proof.
(B) convenient in one case.
(C) ancient, certain, reasonable, continuous and not opposed to law/public policy.
(D) entered in a municipal birth register.
43. A party relying on custom must:
(A) treat it as conclusive without examining statutory conditions.
(B) plead and prove it by clear evidence.
(C) avoid evidence.
(D) merely mention it orally after judgment.
44. The doctrine of mushaa is generally connected with:
(A) gift of an undivided share in certain property contexts under Muslim law.
(B) a charge of cruelty under penal law.
(C) bail forfeiture.
(D) company buy-back.
45. In Mohammedan law questions, the safest method is first to identify:
(A) only the local revenue office.
(B) only the language in which the document is written.
(C) school, facts, type of transaction and the precise personal law principle involved.
(D) only the seniority of the counsel conducting the case.
ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATIONS
1. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.356 defines defamation through reputation-harming imputation subject to exceptions.
2. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.356 exceptions recognise good faith and public-interest categories.
3. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.357 is a special offence concerning helpless persons, not ordinary commercial breach.
4. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.358 is the repeal and savings provision.
5. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.514 creates the bar on cognizance after limitation.
6. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.515 deals with commencement of the period of limitation.
7. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.516 deals with exclusion of time in computation of limitation.
8. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.518 deals with continuing offences for limitation purposes.
9. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.519 permits extension of limitation on statutory grounds.
10. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.528 is the saving of inherent powers of High Court.
11. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.530 recognises electronic mode for trials and proceedings.
12. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BSA S.141 places the decision on admissibility with the Judge.
13. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BSA S.149 permits certain credibility-testing questions subject to controls.
14. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BSA S.152 requires reasonable grounds for such questions.
15. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BSA S.169 prevents reversal for evidence errors unless justice is materially affected.
16. Answer: (D)
Explanation: All three statements correctly describe Haryana’s formation and capital.
17. Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Haryana places are correctly matched with their associations.
18. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Rock Garden is associated with Chandigarh, not Hisar.
19. Answer: (B)
Explanation: All three statements correctly reflect Haryana language and folk culture.
20. Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Battles of Panipat were fought in 1526, 1556 and 1761.
21. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Blackbuck, Peepal and Lotus are correctly matched with Haryana state symbols.
22. Answer: (A)
Explanation: These are important Haryana places for revision.
23. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Haryana is landlocked and known for agriculture, industry, sports and folk culture.
24. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Vitamin C deficiency causes scurvy.
25. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Doctrine of Lapse is associated with Lord Dalhousie.
26. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Sahara is located in North Africa.
27. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Fundamental Rights are enforceable through constitutional remedies.
28. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Inflation is a sustained rise in the general price level.
29. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Since all judges are lawyers, at least some lawyers are judges.
30. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Total required is 5 × 24 = 120; known total is 94; fifth number is 26.
31. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Muslim marriage has contractual character with religious importance.
32. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Mahr is payable to the wife.
33. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Prompt dower may be demanded by the wife.
34. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Deferred dower is payable later as agreed/law provides.
35. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Talaq is a form of dissolution of marriage.
36. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Khula is wife-initiated dissolution under Muslim law.
37. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Maintenance may arise under personal law and statutes.
38. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Declaration, acceptance and delivery of possession are key elements of hiba.
39. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Wakf involves permanent dedication for recognised purposes.
40. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Mutawalli manages wakf property.
41. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Muslim inheritance has defined heirs and shares.
42. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Custom must satisfy strict tests.
43. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Custom must be pleaded and proved.
44. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Mushaa concerns gifts of undivided shares.
45. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Personal law analysis requires school, facts, transaction and principle.