LEVEL of Questions – Very Easy to moderate. Expect tougher Questions as we progress. Mini mocks are comparatively easy to make your preparation full proof. Mock Test Questions that are of Full-Length match Difficulty level of Past year paper.
Error Margin Max – 15 Questions.
GENERAL SCIENCE: BASIC PHYSICS
Force, Motion, Work, Energy and Power
1. A body moving with uniform velocity in a straight line has:
(A) Constant acceleration
(B) Zero acceleration
(C) Increasing force
(D) Variable displacement
2. A force of 15 N acts on a body of mass 3 kg. What will be its acceleration?
(A) 3 m/s²
(B) 5 m/s²
(C) 12 m/s²
(D) 45 m/s²
3. A body of mass 4 kg is moving with an acceleration of 2.5 m/s². The force acting on it is:
(A) 6.5 N
(B) 8 N
(C) 10 N
(D) 16 N
4. If a force is applied on an object but the object does not move, then:
(A) Maximum work is done
(B) Work done is zero
(C) Work done is negative
(D) Power is maximum
5. A man lifts a 10 kg box to a height of 2 m. If g = 10 m/s², the work done is:
(A) 20 J
(B) 100 J
(C) 200 J
(D) 500 J
6. Which of the following has both magnitude and direction?
(A) Speed
(B) Distance
(C) Energy
(D) Force
7. A moving car comes to rest when brakes are applied. The force responsible for stopping the car is mainly:
(A) Gravitational force
(B) Magnetic force
(C) Frictional force
(D) Nuclear force
8. The kinetic energy of a body depends upon:
(A) Mass and velocity
(B) Force and pressure
(C) Height and weight
(D) Time and distance only
9. If the velocity of a moving body is doubled, its kinetic energy becomes:
(A) Two times
(B) Three times
(C) Four times
(D) Half
10. A machine does 600 J of work in 30 seconds. Its power is:
(A) 10 W
(B) 15 W
(C) 20 W
(D) 30 W
REASONING
Analogy and Classification
1. Force is related to Newton in the same way as Work is related to:
(A) Watt
(B) Joule
(C) Pascal
(D) Metre
2. Bird is related to Wings in the same way as Fish is related to:
(A) Fins
(B) Tail
(C) Scales
(D) Water
3. Doctor is related to Stethoscope in the same way as Carpenter is related to:
(A) Brush
(B) Hammer
(C) Microscope
(D) Plough
4. Acceleration is related to Velocity in the same way as Velocity is related to:
(A) Distance
(B) Speed
(C) Displacement
(D) Time
5. Seed is related to Tree in the same way as Egg is related to:
(A) Nest
(B) Bird
(C) Feather
(D) Wing
6. Choose the odd one out:
(A) Joule
(B) Newton
(C) Watt
(D) Kilogram
7. Choose the odd one out:
(A) Rectangle
(B) Square
(C) Triangle
(D) Cylinder
8. Choose the odd one out:
(A) Iron
(B) Copper
(C) Aluminium
(D) Coal
9. Choose the odd one out:
(A) Velocity
(B) Displacement
(C) Force
(D) Speed
10. Choose the odd one out:
(A) Mercury
(B) Venus
(C) Moon
(D) Mars
ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATIONS: BASIC PHYSICS
1. B — Zero acceleration: Uniform velocity means speed and direction remain constant; therefore, acceleration is zero.
2. B — 5 m/s²: Acceleration = Force ÷ Mass = 15 ÷ 3 = 5 m/s².
3. C — 10 N: Force = Mass × Acceleration = 4 × 2.5 = 10 N.
4. B — Work done is zero: Work is done only when force produces displacement.
5. C — 200 J: Work = mgh = 10 × 10 × 2 = 200 J.
6. D — Force: Force is a vector quantity because it has both magnitude and direction.
7. C — Frictional force: Brakes stop a vehicle mainly by producing friction against motion.
8. A — Mass and velocity: Kinetic energy is given by ½mv², so it depends on mass and velocity.
9. C — Four times: Kinetic energy is proportional to the square of velocity; if velocity is doubled, kinetic energy becomes four times.
10. C — 20 W: Power = Work ÷ Time = 600 ÷ 30 = 20 W.
ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATIONS: REASONING
1. B — Joule: Newton is the SI unit of force; Joule is the SI unit of work.
2. A — Fins: Wings help birds move; fins help fish move in water.
3. B — Hammer: A stethoscope is used by a doctor; a hammer is commonly used by a carpenter.
4. C — Displacement: Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity; velocity is the rate of change of displacement.
5. B — Bird: A seed develops into a tree; an egg develops into a bird.
6. D — Kilogram: Joule, Newton and Watt are derived SI units, while kilogram is a base SI unit.
7. D — Cylinder: Cylinder is a three-dimensional solid, while the others are two-dimensional figures.
8. D — Coal: Iron, copper and aluminium are metals; coal is a non-metallic fuel.
9. D — Speed: Velocity, displacement and force are vector quantities, while speed is a scalar quantity.
10. C — Moon: Mercury, Venus and Mars are planets, while the Moon is a natural satellite.
CIVIL LAW
CPC SECTIONS 1–9
1. Under Section 1 of the CPC, the Code may be cited as:
(A) The Civil Procedure Act, 1908
(B) The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(C) The Indian Civil Courts Code, 1908
(D) The Civil Courts Procedure Code, 1908
2. Section 1 of the CPC deals with all of the following except:
(A) Short title
(B) Commencement
(C) Extent
(D) Jurisdiction of civil courts
3. Which of the following most accurately states the territorial extent of the CPC under Section 1?
(A) It extends to the whole of India without exception.
(B) It extends to the whole of India except the State of Nagaland and tribal areas, subject to possible extension by notification.
(C) It extends only to courts established under the Constitution of India.
(D) It extends only to civil courts situated in States and not Union Territories.
4. Under Section 2(1), the word “Code” includes “rules”. Which of the following is the best legal implication?
(A) Only rules in the First Schedule are part of the Code, but rules made under rule-making powers are excluded.
(B) The Code includes rules and forms contained in the First Schedule or made under the relevant rule-making provisions.
(C) Rules are merely administrative directions and cannot be treated as part of the Code.
(D) Rules override the substantive sections of the CPC in every case of conflict.
5. A “decree” under Section 2(2) means formal expression of an adjudication which conclusively determines:
(A) Criminal liability of the accused
(B) Rights of parties regarding matters in controversy in the suit
(C) Administrative powers of the court
(D) Jurisdiction of revenue officers
6. Which of the following adjudications is not a decree under Section 2(2)?
(A) Rejection of a plaint under Order VII Rule 11
(B) Final adjudication conclusively determining rights of parties in a suit
(C) Order of dismissal of a suit for default
(D) Determination of any question within Section 144
7. An adjudication is appealable as an appeal from an order. Under Section 2(2), it is:
(A) Treated as a decree because appeal is available
(B) Treated as a preliminary decree
(C) Excluded from the definition of decree
(D) Treated as a final decree if it affects substantive rights
8. A court passes an adjudication conclusively determining only some rights of parties, while further proceedings remain necessary before the suit is completely disposed of. Such adjudication is:
(A) Not a decree because all issues are not finally decided
(B) A preliminary decree
(C) Merely an order because the suit is still pending
(D) A judgment but never a decree
9. Which of the following statements about a decree is most accurate?
(A) A decree must always completely dispose of the suit
(B) A decree may be preliminary, final, or partly preliminary and partly final
(C) A decree can never arise from rejection of a plaint
(D) Every appealable adjudication is necessarily a decree
10. X obtains an executable order in his favour, though no decree has been passed in the strict sense. Under Section 2(3), X is:
(A) Not a decree-holder because decree alone is relevant
(B) A decree-holder because the definition includes a person in whose favour an executable order is made
(C) A judgment-debtor until execution begins
(D) Only an order-holder, not recognized under the CPC
11. Under Section 2(4), “district” includes:
(A) Only revenue districts notified by the State Government
(B) Only administrative districts headed by Deputy Commissioners
(C) Local limits of the principal Civil Court of original jurisdiction, and also the ordinary original civil jurisdiction of a High Court
(D) Only the territorial limits of subordinate courts below the District Court
12. A court situated outside India but established or continued by the authority of the Central Government is:
(A) Necessarily a foreign court
(B) Not a foreign court under Section 2(5)
(C) A foreign court only if it applies foreign law
(D) A foreign court only if its judgment is not executable in India
13. A “foreign judgment” under Section 2(6) means:
(A) Judgment passed in a foreign language
(B) Judgment of a foreign court
(C) Judgment delivered by a foreign national
(D) Judgment involving foreign property only
14. Which of the following is the most accurate distinction between “judgment” and “decree” under Section 2?
(A) Judgment is the formal expression of rights; decree is the reasons
(B) Judgment is the statement of grounds; decree is the formal expression of adjudication
(C) Judgment and decree are identical expressions
(D) Judgment is always executable; decree is never executable without a separate order
15. A person who has no formal heirship declaration but intermeddles with the estate of the deceased may fall within which definition?
(A) Judgment-debtor
(B) Decree-holder
(C) Legal representative
(D) Public officer
16. In a representative suit, the original party dies. Under Section 2(11), the person on whom the estate devolves is:
(A) Excluded unless formally appointed executor
(B) Included within legal representative
(C) Treated only as a witness
(D) Treated as a pleader for the deceased party
17. Which of the following is excluded from “mesne profits” under Section 2(12)?
(A) Profits actually received by a person in wrongful possession
(B) Profits which such person might with ordinary diligence have received
(C) Interest on such profits
(D) Profits due to improvements made by the person in wrongful possession
18. Which of the following is included in “movable property” under Section 2(13)?
(A) Standing building
(B) Growing crops
(C) Easement right
(D) Mortgage debt secured by immovable property
19. Under Section 2(14), an “order” means:
(A) Formal expression of any decision of a Civil Court which is not a decree
(B) Any oral observation made by the judge during hearing
(C) Every final adjudication of rights in a suit
(D) Only directions passed in execution proceedings
20. Under Section 3 CPC, which hierarchy is correctly stated?
(A) District Court is subordinate to every Civil Court inferior to it
(B) Every Court of Small Causes is subordinate only to the High Court and never to the District Court
(C) District Court is subordinate to the High Court, and inferior Civil Courts and Small Cause Courts are subordinate to the High Court and District Court
(D) High Court is subordinate to the District Court for purposes of original civil jurisdiction
21. Section 4 CPC mainly protects:
(A) The overriding effect of CPC over every special or local law
(B) Special or local laws, special jurisdiction, special powers, and special forms of procedure unless there is a specific contrary provision
(C) Only criminal procedure from being affected by CPC
(D) Only revenue recovery proceedings from being affected by CPC
22. Under Section 5, a “Revenue Court” means a court having jurisdiction under local law over suits/proceedings relating to:
(A) Any property, movable or immovable
(B) Rent, revenue or profits of land used for agricultural purposes
(C) Only title disputes over urban immovable property
(D) Only criminal prosecution for land revenue default
23. Which of the following is most accurate under Section 6 CPC?
(A) CPC automatically enlarges the pecuniary jurisdiction of every civil court
(B) A court may try suits beyond pecuniary limits if parties consent
(C) CPC does not confer jurisdiction over suits exceeding the pecuniary limits of the court’s ordinary jurisdiction, unless otherwise expressly provided
(D) Pecuniary jurisdiction is relevant only at execution stage
24. Under Section 7 CPC, certain provisions of the Code do not extend to:
(A) All High Courts exercising appellate jurisdiction
(B) Courts constituted under the Provincial Small Cause Courts Act, 1887, and courts exercising the jurisdiction of Small Cause Courts
(C) All revenue courts in India
(D) All civil courts below the rank of District Judge
25. Which of the following provisions is specifically included among those not extending to Provincial Small Cause Courts under Section 7 CPC?
(A) Sections 10 and 11
(B) Section 9 and Sections 91 and 92
(C) Sections 13 and 14
(D) Sections 153 and 151
26. Section 8 CPC deals with the application of the Code to:
(A) Revenue Courts
(B) Presidency Small Cause Courts
(C) Criminal Courts
(D) Family Courts
27. Under Section 8 CPC, the provisions in the body of the Code generally do not extend to suits or proceedings in Presidency Small Cause Courts, except as provided by:
(A) The Indian Penal Code
(B) The Indian Contract Act
(C) Certain specified sections of CPC and the Presidency Small Cause Courts Act, 1882
(D) The Transfer of Property Act
28. Section 9 CPC embodies the principle that civil courts shall try:
(A) Only suits expressly permitted by statute
(B) All suits of civil nature except those expressly or impliedly barred
(C) Only suits involving immovable property
(D) Only suits where government is not a party
29. A suit concerns the right to hold a religious office, and the decision depends entirely on questions of religious rites or ceremonies. Under Section 9 Explanation I, such a suit is:
(A) Not of civil nature because religious questions are involved
(B) Of civil nature if the right to office is contested
(C) Barred unless fees are attached to the office
(D) Maintainable only before a revenue court
30. Under Section 9 Explanation II, for deciding whether a suit is of civil nature, it is immaterial whether:
(A) The defendant has appeared or not
(B) The suit is filed in a District Court or High Court
(C) Any fees are attached to the office or whether such office is attached to a particular place
(D) The suit involves documentary evidence or oral evidence
ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATIONS: CPC SECTIONS 1–9
1. B — Section 1 gives the short title as “The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908”.
2. D — Section 1 deals with short title, commencement and extent, not jurisdiction of civil courts.
3. B — CPC extends to the whole of India except Nagaland and tribal areas, subject to extension by notification.
4. B — “Code” includes rules, and rules include rules/forms in the First Schedule and rules made under CPC rule-making provisions.
5. B — A decree formally and conclusively determines the rights of parties regarding matters in controversy in a suit.
6. C — Dismissal of a suit for default is expressly excluded from the definition of decree.
7. C — An adjudication appealable as an appeal from an order is excluded from the definition of decree.
8. B — It is a preliminary decree because further proceedings are required before complete disposal of the suit.
9. B — A decree may be preliminary, final, or partly preliminary and partly final.
10. B — A decree-holder includes a person in whose favour a decree or executable order has been made.
11. C — “District” includes the local limits of the principal Civil Court of original jurisdiction and ordinary original civil jurisdiction of a High Court.
12. B — A foreign court must be outside India and not established or continued by authority of the Central Government.
13. B — A foreign judgment means the judgment of a foreign court.
14. B — A judgment gives the grounds of a decree or order, while a decree is the formal expression of adjudication.
15. C — A person intermeddling with the estate of a deceased person is included within “legal representative”.
16. B — In representative litigation, the person on whom the estate devolves is included as legal representative.
17. D — Mesne profits exclude profits due to improvements made by the person in wrongful possession.
18. B — “Movable property” expressly includes growing crops.
19. A — An order is the formal expression of a Civil Court’s decision which is not a decree.
20. C — Section 3 places District Courts under High Courts and inferior Civil Courts/Small Cause Courts under the High Court and District Court.
21. B — Section 4 saves special/local laws, special jurisdiction, special powers and special procedure unless specifically affected.
22. B — A Revenue Court relates to suits or proceedings concerning rent, revenue or profits of agricultural land.
23. C — Section 6 makes clear that CPC does not enlarge a court’s pecuniary jurisdiction beyond its ordinary limits.
24. B — Section 7 concerns Provincial Small Cause Courts and courts exercising Small Cause Court jurisdiction.
25. B — Section 7 specifically mentions Section 9 and Sections 91 and 92 among provisions not extending to Provincial Small Cause Courts.
26. B — Section 8 deals with the application of the Code to Presidency Small Cause Courts.
27. C — Section 8 applies only certain specified CPC provisions and provisions under the Presidency Small Cause Courts Act, 1882.
28. B — Section 9 gives civil courts jurisdiction to try all suits of civil nature unless expressly or impliedly barred.
29. B — Under Explanation I to Section 9, a suit for an office is civil in nature even if it depends on religious rites or ceremonies.
30. C — Explanation II says it is immaterial whether fees are attached to the office or whether it is attached to a particular place.
Procedural Law
BNS
1. A voluntarily consumes intoxicants and then commits an offence which requires proof of particular knowledge. He argues that because he was intoxicated, the required mental element cannot be attributed to him. Which is legally most accurate?
(A) Voluntary intoxication always excludes both intention and knowledge.
(B) He is treated as having the same knowledge as he would have had if sober, unless intoxication was without his knowledge or against his will.
(C) Intoxication is relevant only for sentencing and never for liability.
(D) The prosecution must prove that he actually remembered every consequence of his act.
2. A surgeon performs a risky operation on an adult patient with consent, knowing that death is possible, but genuinely believing that the operation is for the patient’s benefit and not intending death. Which statement is most accurate?
(A) The surgeon is liable because knowledge of possible death is enough.
(B) The surgeon is protected if the act was done in good faith for the patient’s benefit and death was not intended.
(C) Consent is irrelevant where death is even remotely possible.
(D) The surgeon is protected only if the operation causes no harm.
3. A blacksmith is seized by armed dacoits and compelled at gunpoint to break open a door. He had not voluntarily joined them. Which is the best legal position?
(A) He is protected because the act was compelled by threat of instant death.
(B) He is liable because every assistance to dacoity is punishable regardless of compulsion.
(C) He is protected only if no property was ultimately stolen.
(D) He is liable because threat is never a general exception.
4. A person joins a gang knowing it is a criminal gang, because he fears being beaten if he refuses. Later, the gang compels him to commit an offence. Can he claim the defence of compulsion by threats?
(A) Yes, because any fear is sufficient.
(B) Yes, if he did not personally gain from the offence.
(C) No, because he voluntarily placed himself in the situation by joining the gang.
(D) No, because the defence of threat applies only to public servants.
5. A child aged 10 commits an act which would otherwise be an offence. Evidence shows that the child did not have sufficient maturity to understand the nature and consequences of the conduct on that occasion. Which conclusion is correct?
(A) The child is absolutely liable once above seven years.
(B) The child is exempt because immaturity of understanding is proved.
(C) The child is exempt only if below seven years.
(D) The child is liable unless the act was committed under threat.
6. A, while defending himself from an assault reasonably causing apprehension of grievous hurt, causes death of the assailant. Which statement is correct?
(A) Death can never be caused in private defence unless the defender is first injured.
(B) Causing death may be justified where the assault reasonably causes apprehension of death or grievous hurt.
(C) Private defence permits only equal injury, not death.
(D) Private defence ends the moment the assailant raises his hand.
7. A public servant acting in good faith under colour of office attempts an act not strictly justified by law, but it does not reasonably cause apprehension of death or grievous hurt. The affected person has enough time to approach authorities but attacks the public servant. Which is correct?
(A) Private defence is fully available against every illegal official act.
(B) Private defence is unavailable in such circumstances.
(C) Private defence is available because the act was technically illegal.
(D) Private defence automatically extends to causing death.
8. A is attacked by a person of unsound mind who attempts to kill him. The attacker may not be criminally liable because of unsoundness. What is A’s position?
(A) A has no private defence because the attacker commits no offence.
(B) A has the same private defence as if the attacker were capable of committing the offence.
(C) A can defend only property, not body.
(D) A must retreat and cannot resist.
9. A sees a child being carried away by a tiger. To save the child, A fires at the tiger knowing that the shot may kill the child, but not intending to kill the child. The child is accidentally killed. Which is most accurate?
(A) A is protected if the act was done in good faith for the child’s benefit.
(B) A is liable because knowledge of possible death always defeats the exception.
(C) A is protected only if the guardian gave consent.
(D) A is liable because saving life is not a legal justification.
10. A person uses force to protect property against ordinary theft where there is no reasonable apprehension of death or grievous hurt. In doing so, he intentionally kills the thief. Which is correct?
(A) The killing is justified because theft affects property.
(B) The right extends to causing death in every case of theft.
(C) The right may extend to harm other than death, but not death in ordinary theft.
(D) Private defence of property is never available.
BNSS
1. A Sessions Judge passes a sentence of death after trial. Which statement is legally correct?
(A) The sentence is final once pronounced by the Sessions Judge.
(B) The sentence requires confirmation by the High Court.
(C) The sentence must be confirmed by the State Government.
(D) The sentence is illegal because only the High Court can conduct murder trials.
2. A Magistrate of the first class imposes imprisonment of four years for an offence triable by him. Which is correct?
(A) Valid, because a first class Magistrate has unlimited imprisonment power.
(B) Invalid, because the power ordinarily cannot exceed three years.
(C) Valid only if the accused pleads guilty.
(D) Valid if fine is not imposed.
3. A Magistrate of the second class imposes fine of ₹25,000. Which statement is most accurate?
(A) Valid, because every Magistrate may impose ₹50,000 fine.
(B) Invalid, because a second class Magistrate cannot impose fine beyond ₹10,000.
(C) Valid if no imprisonment is imposed.
(D) Valid if the offence is non-cognizable.
4. A Chief Judicial Magistrate awards imprisonment for eight years for an offence. Which is correct?
(A) Valid because a CJM can pass any sentence except death.
(B) Invalid because a CJM cannot award imprisonment exceeding seven years.
(C) Valid if the offence is serious.
(D) Valid if confirmed by the Sessions Judge.
5. In one trial, an accused is convicted of multiple offences. The court wants consecutive sentences exceeding its single-offence sentencing power. Which is correct?
(A) The case must always be sent to a higher court.
(B) Consecutive sentences may be ordered, but the aggregate limits under BNSS must be respected.
(C) Consecutive sentences are prohibited.
(D) All sentences must necessarily run concurrently.
6. For appointment of a Public Prosecutor for a district, the State Government selects a person whose name is not in the panel prepared by the District Magistrate in consultation with the Sessions Judge, and no regular prosecuting cadre exception applies. Which is correct?
(A) The appointment is proper because the State has absolute discretion.
(B) The appointment is improper because the name must appear in the panel.
(C) The appointment is proper if the District Magistrate later approves orally.
(D) The appointment is proper only in summons cases.
7. A police officer below the rank of Inspector is proposed to be appointed as Assistant Public Prosecutor in a particular case because no APP is available. Which is correct?
(A) Permissible if the District Magistrate approves.
(B) Not permissible because a police officer below Inspector is ineligible.
(C) Permissible only if the accused consents.
(D) Permissible only in bailable offences.
8. A police officer of Inspector rank investigated the same offence and is later proposed to conduct prosecution as Assistant Public Prosecutor in that case. Which is correct?
(A) Permissible because he is not below Inspector rank.
(B) Not permissible because he took part in investigation of the same offence.
(C) Permissible if the offence is minor.
(D) Permissible if the victim requests it.
9. A State wants to establish a Special Court of Judicial Magistrate for a particular class of cases in a local area. What follows once such Special Court is validly established?
(A) All Magistrates in the State continue to have parallel jurisdiction.
(B) No other Magistrate in that local area has jurisdiction over the class of cases assigned to that Special Court.
(C) The Special Court can try only civil matters.
(D) The Special Court functions without High Court consultation.
10. The Director of Prosecution is monitoring a case punishable with life imprisonment. Which statement best reflects the BNSS scheme?
(A) Such monitoring falls within the Director’s functions.
(B) Only the Assistant Director can monitor all cases.
(C) The Directorate has no role after filing of police report.
(D) The Director can monitor only petty offences.
BSA
1. In a murder trial, the prosecution wants to prove that the accused beat the deceased, that the beating caused death, and that the accused intended to cause death. These are best described as:
(A) Irrelevant collateral facts
(B) Facts in issue
(C) Privileged facts
(D) Conclusive presumptions
2. During a violent assault, bystanders shout, the victim cries for help, and the accused makes a statement during the assault. These facts are sought to be proved. Which principle applies?
(A) They are irrelevant because they are not the final injury.
(B) They may be relevant if they form part of the same transaction.
(C) They are admissible only as expert opinion.
(D) They are inadmissible unless reduced into writing.
3. A is accused of poisoning B. Evidence shows A purchased the same poison shortly before B’s death. This evidence is mainly relevant as:
(A) Character evidence only
(B) Preparation connected with the fact in issue
(C) Conclusive proof of guilt
(D) A confession
4. A is accused of robbery. After the robbery, someone says in A’s presence, “Police are coming to search for the robber,” and A immediately runs away. Which is correct?
(A) The statement and A’s immediate flight may be relevant as conduct.
(B) The statement is irrelevant because all statements are excluded from conduct.
(C) A’s silence alone proves guilt conclusively.
(D) Flight after accusation is never relevant.
5. A statement is offered as “conduct,” but it does not accompany or explain any act. Which is the best rule?
(A) Every statement is conduct.
(B) Statements are generally excluded from conduct unless they accompany and explain acts, though they may be relevant under other provisions.
(C) Statements are never relevant under BSA.
(D) Statements are relevant only if made to police.
6. A, B and C are reasonably believed to have conspired to commit an offence. After the common design began, B writes a letter in reference to the conspiracy. A claims he never saw the letter. Which is correct?
(A) The letter can never be relevant against A.
(B) It may be relevant against A if it was in reference to the common design.
(C) It is relevant only if written in A’s handwriting.
(D) It is relevant only if written before the conspiracy began.
7. A is charged with committing an offence in Chennai on a particular day. He proves that on that day he was in Ladakh. This fact is relevant because:
(A) It shows motive.
(B) It is inconsistent with the fact in issue or makes commission highly improbable.
(C) It proves character.
(D) It is a confession by conduct.
8. In a suit for damages, the plaintiff seeks to prove the extent of loss suffered to help the court quantify compensation. Which is correct?
(A) Such facts are relevant because they assist determination of damages.
(B) Such facts are irrelevant once liability is denied.
(C) Only facts proving motive are relevant.
(D) Damages can never be proved through evidence.
9. A is tried for intentionally burning his insured houses to claim insurance. Evidence shows that several earlier houses owned by him were insured, caught fire, and resulted in insurance payments. Which is correct?
(A) The earlier fires are always irrelevant as bad character.
(B) The earlier fires may be relevant to show the fire was not accidental.
(C) The earlier fires are conclusive proof of guilt.
(D) The earlier fires are relevant only if A confessed.
10. The question is whether a letter was dispatched. Evidence is given that the ordinary office practice was to carry all letters placed in a particular tray to the post, and the disputed letter was placed in that tray. Which principle applies?
(A) Course of business may be relevant to show that the act was done.
(B) Course of business is irrelevant unless an eyewitness saw the posting.
(C) Only handwriting evidence is relevant.
(D) Dispatch can be proved only by admission.
ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATIONS: BNS
1. B — Voluntary intoxication does not erase knowledge; involuntary intoxication is treated differently.
2. B — Good-faith medical acts for benefit with consent are protected if death is not intended.
3. A — Compulsion by threat of instant death may excuse the act, subject to statutory exceptions.
4. C — A person who voluntarily joins criminals cannot later rely on compulsion arising from that situation.
5. B — A child above seven and below twelve is exempt if insufficient maturity is proved.
6. B — Private defence of body may extend to death where death or grievous hurt is reasonably apprehended.
7. B — No private defence lies against good-faith official acts not causing grave apprehension where public authorities can be approached.
8. B — Private defence is available even against acts of persons protected by unsoundness, youth, intoxication or misconception.
9. A — Good-faith acts to save or benefit a child may be protected even if death accidentally results.
10. C — Ordinary theft permits defensive harm, but not intentional killing unless aggravated danger exists.
ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATIONS: BNSS
1. B — A death sentence passed by a Sessions Judge requires High Court confirmation.
2. B — A first class Magistrate cannot exceed three years’ imprisonment.
3. B — A second class Magistrate’s fine power is limited to ₹10,000.
4. B — A Chief Judicial Magistrate cannot impose imprisonment exceeding seven years.
5. B — Consecutive sentencing is possible but subject to aggregate statutory limits.
6. B — District Public Prosecutor appointment must ordinarily be from the panel prepared with Sessions Judge consultation.
7. B — A police officer below Inspector rank is ineligible for such Assistant Public Prosecutor appointment.
8. B — Participation in investigation of the same offence disqualifies the police officer.
9. B — A validly established Special Judicial Magistrate Court excludes other local Magistrates for assigned cases.
10. A — The Director monitors serious cases including those punishable with life imprisonment.
ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATIONS: BSA
1. B — The act, causation and intention are facts directly in issue in murder.
2. B — Statements or acts closely connected with the transaction may be relevant as part of the same transaction.
3. B — Procuring poison is relevant as preparation.
4. A — A statement affecting conduct and the immediate conduct itself may be relevant.
5. B — Statements are not conduct unless they accompany and explain acts, though other relevancy rules may apply.
6. B — Conspirator acts or writings after common intention begins may be relevant against co-conspirators.
7. B — Alibi-type facts are relevant because they make the alleged commission highly improbable.
8. A — Facts helping the court assess damages are relevant in damages suits.
9. B — Similar occurrences may show whether an act was accidental or intentional.
10. A — Regular course of business is relevant to prove that a particular act was done.