Haryana ADA Mains Test Series & Mentorship – Max 60 Advocates.
- One to one mentoring (Max 12 sessions.)
- 20 Full Length Haryana Mains Tests
- Interview Sessions- 5.
- Daily answer writing.
- Video Broadcast session for strategy and momentum boost.
Haryana ADA Complete Mains Test Series & Mentorship- 6000 Rupees. The plan is of 4000 Rupees for advocates of Haryana with 5 years of Practice or from date of sanad. This plan validity is for 4 months starting from 25th May 2026. All disputes subject to Chandigarh District Court Jurisdiction.
Mentor and curator of Series Details- Rohit Sharma- Passout (Rgnul). 100 PSU and ADA selections.
Harsh Singh- Pass out NLSIU Bangalore 2017. Policy Expert. Drafted 10 Legislations for Defence Cantonments. Cleared written of UPSC ED, CBI exam in 2026.
Contact via Whatsapp- 9816789740.
HARYANA ADA 2026 – DAY 1 MINI MOCK
LEVEL OF QUESTIONS: Very Easy to Moderate
Expect tougher questions as we progress. Mini mocks are comparatively easy to make your preparation foolproof. Full-length mock tests match the difficulty level of past-year papers.
ERROR MARGIN: Maximum 15 questions.
PART I: GENERAL SCIENCE
BASIC PHYSICS
Force, Motion, Work, Energy and Power
1. A body moving with uniform velocity in a straight line has:
(A) Constant acceleration
(B) Zero acceleration
(C) Increasing force
(D) Variable displacement
2. A force of 15 N acts on a body of mass 3 kg. What will be its acceleration?
(A) 3 m/s²
(B) 5 m/s²
(C) 12 m/s²
(D) 45 m/s²
3. A body of mass 4 kg is moving with an acceleration of 2.5 m/s². The force acting on it is:
(A) 6.5 N
(B) 8 N
(C) 10 N
(D) 16 N
4. If a force is applied on an object but the object does not move, then:
(A) Maximum work is done
(B) Work done is zero
(C) Work done is negative
(D) Power is maximum
5. A man lifts a 10 kg box to a height of 2 m. If g = 10 m/s², the work done is:
(A) 20 J
(B) 100 J
(C) 200 J
(D) 500 J
6. Which of the following has both magnitude and direction?
(A) Speed
(B) Distance
(C) Energy
(D) Force
7. A moving car comes to rest when brakes are applied. The force responsible for stopping the car is mainly:
(A) Gravitational force
(B) Magnetic force
(C) Frictional force
(D) Nuclear force
8. The kinetic energy of a body depends upon:
(A) Mass and velocity
(B) Force and pressure
(C) Height and weight
(D) Time and distance only
9. If the velocity of a moving body is doubled, its kinetic energy becomes:
(A) Two times
(B) Three times
(C) Four times
(D) Half
10. A machine does 600 J of work in 30 seconds. Its power is:
(A) 10 W
(B) 15 W
(C) 20 W
(D) 30 W
PART II: REASONING
Analogy and Classification
1. Force is related to Newton in the same way as Work is related to:
(A) Watt
(B) Joule
(C) Pascal
(D) Metre
2. Bird is related to Wings in the same way as Fish is related to:
(A) Fins
(B) Tail
(C) Scales
(D) Water
3. Doctor is related to Stethoscope in the same way as Carpenter is related to:
(A) Brush
(B) Hammer
(C) Microscope
(D) Plough
4. Acceleration is related to Velocity in the same way as Velocity is related to:
(A) Distance
(B) Speed
(C) Displacement
(D) Time
5. Seed is related to Tree in the same way as Egg is related to:
(A) Nest
(B) Bird
(C) Feather
(D) Wing
6. Choose the odd one out:
(A) Joule
(B) Newton
(C) Watt
(D) Kilogram
7. Choose the odd one out:
(A) Rectangle
(B) Square
(C) Triangle
(D) Cylinder
8. Choose the odd one out:
(A) Iron
(B) Copper
(C) Aluminium
(D) Coal
9. Choose the odd one out:
(A) Velocity
(B) Displacement
(C) Force
(D) Speed
10. Choose the odd one out:
(A) Mercury
(B) Venus
(C) Moon
(D) Mars
PART III: CIVIL LAW
CPC SECTIONS 1–9
1. Under Section 1 of the CPC, the Code may be cited as:
(A) The Civil Procedure Act, 1908
(B) The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(C) The Indian Civil Courts Code, 1908
(D) The Civil Courts Procedure Code, 1908
2. Section 1 of the CPC deals with all of the following except:
(A) Short title
(B) Commencement
(C) Extent
(D) Jurisdiction of civil courts
3. Which of the following most accurately states the territorial extent of the CPC under Section 1?
(A) It extends to the whole of India without exception.
(B) It extends to the whole of India except the State of Nagaland and tribal areas, subject to possible extension by notification.
(C) It extends only to courts established under the Constitution of India.
(D) It extends only to civil courts situated in States and not Union Territories.
4. Under Section 2(1), the word “Code” includes “rules”. Which of the following is the best legal implication?
(A) Only rules in the First Schedule are part of the Code, but rules made under rule-making powers are excluded.
(B) The Code includes rules and forms contained in the First Schedule or made under the relevant rule-making provisions.
(C) Rules are merely administrative directions and cannot be treated as part of the Code.
(D) Rules override the substantive sections of the CPC in every case of conflict.
5. A “decree” under Section 2(2) means formal expression of an adjudication which conclusively determines:
(A) Criminal liability of the accused
(B) Rights of parties regarding matters in controversy in the suit
(C) Administrative powers of the court
(D) Jurisdiction of revenue officers
6. Which of the following adjudications is not a decree under Section 2(2)?
(A) Rejection of a plaint under Order VII Rule 11
(B) Final adjudication conclusively determining rights of parties in a suit
(C) Order of dismissal of a suit for default
(D) Determination of any question within Section 144
7. An adjudication is appealable as an appeal from an order. Under Section 2(2), it is:
(A) Treated as a decree because appeal is available
(B) Treated as a preliminary decree
(C) Excluded from the definition of decree
(D) Treated as a final decree if it affects substantive rights
8. A court passes an adjudication conclusively determining only some rights of parties, while further proceedings remain necessary before the suit is completely disposed of. Such adjudication is:
(A) Not a decree because all issues are not finally decided
(B) A preliminary decree
(C) Merely an order because the suit is still pending
(D) A judgment but never a decree
9. Which of the following statements about a decree is most accurate?
(A) A decree must always completely dispose of the suit
(B) A decree may be preliminary, final, or partly preliminary and partly final
(C) A decree can never arise from rejection of a plaint
(D) Every appealable adjudication is necessarily a decree
10. X obtains an executable order in his favour, though no decree has been passed in the strict sense. Under Section 2(3), X is:
(A) Not a decree-holder because decree alone is relevant
(B) A decree-holder because the definition includes a person in whose favour an executable order is made
(C) A judgment-debtor until execution begins
(D) Only an order-holder, not recognized under the CPC
11. Under Section 2(4), “district” includes:
(A) Only revenue districts notified by the State Government
(B) Only administrative districts headed by Deputy Commissioners
(C) Local limits of the principal Civil Court of original jurisdiction, and also the ordinary original civil jurisdiction of a High Court
(D) Only the territorial limits of subordinate courts below the District Court
12. A court situated outside India but established or continued by the authority of the Central Government is:
(A) Necessarily a foreign court
(B) Not a foreign court under Section 2(5)
(C) A foreign court only if it applies foreign law
(D) A foreign court only if its judgment is not executable in India
13. A “foreign judgment” under Section 2(6) means:
(A) Judgment passed in a foreign language
(B) Judgment of a foreign court
(C) Judgment delivered by a foreign national
(D) Judgment involving foreign property only
14. Which of the following is the most accurate distinction between “judgment” and “decree” under Section 2?
(A) Judgment is the formal expression of rights; decree is the reasons
(B) Judgment is the statement of grounds; decree is the formal expression of adjudication
(C) Judgment and decree are identical expressions
(D) Judgment is always executable; decree is never executable without a separate order
15. A person who has no formal heirship declaration but intermeddles with the estate of the deceased may fall within which definition?
(A) Judgment-debtor
(B) Decree-holder
(C) Legal representative
(D) Public officer
16. In a representative suit, the original party dies. Under Section 2(11), the person on whom the estate devolves is:
(A) Excluded unless formally appointed executor
(B) Included within legal representative
(C) Treated only as a witness
(D) Treated as a pleader for the deceased party
17. Which of the following is excluded from “mesne profits” under Section 2(12)?
(A) Profits actually received by a person in wrongful possession
(B) Profits which such person might with ordinary diligence have received
(C) Interest on such profits
(D) Profits due to improvements made by the person in wrongful possession
18. Which of the following is included in “movable property” under Section 2(13)?
(A) Standing building
(B) Growing crops
(C) Easement right
(D) Mortgage debt secured by immovable property
19. Under Section 2(14), an “order” means:
(A) Formal expression of any decision of a Civil Court which is not a decree
(B) Any oral observation made by the judge during hearing
(C) Every final adjudication of rights in a suit
(D) Only directions passed in execution proceedings
20. Under Section 3 CPC, which hierarchy is correctly stated?
(A) District Court is subordinate to every Civil Court inferior to it
(B) Every Court of Small Causes is subordinate only to the High Court and never to the District Court
(C) District Court is subordinate to the High Court, and inferior Civil Courts and Small Cause Courts are subordinate to the High Court and District Court
(D) High Court is subordinate to the District Court for purposes of original civil jurisdiction
21. Section 4 CPC mainly protects:
(A) The overriding effect of CPC over every special or local law
(B) Special or local laws, special jurisdiction, special powers, and special forms of procedure unless there is a specific contrary provision
(C) Only criminal procedure from being affected by CPC
(D) Only revenue recovery proceedings from being affected by CPC
22. Under Section 5, a “Revenue Court” means a court having jurisdiction under local law over suits/proceedings relating to:
(A) Any property, movable or immovable
(B) Rent, revenue or profits of land used for agricultural purposes
(C) Only title disputes over urban immovable property
(D) Only criminal prosecution for land revenue default
23. Which of the following is most accurate under Section 6 CPC?
(A) CPC automatically enlarges the pecuniary jurisdiction of every civil court
(B) A court may try suits beyond pecuniary limits if parties consent
(C) CPC does not confer jurisdiction over suits exceeding the pecuniary limits of the court’s ordinary jurisdiction, unless otherwise expressly provided
(D) Pecuniary jurisdiction is relevant only at execution stage
24. Under Section 7 CPC, certain provisions of the Code do not extend to:
(A) All High Courts exercising appellate jurisdiction
(B) Courts constituted under the Provincial Small Cause Courts Act, 1887, and courts exercising the jurisdiction of Small Cause Courts
(C) All revenue courts in India
(D) All civil courts below the rank of District Judge
25. Which of the following provisions is specifically included among those not extending to Provincial Small Cause Courts under Section 7 CPC?
(A) Sections 10 and 11
(B) Section 9 and Sections 91 and 92
(C) Sections 13 and 14
(D) Sections 153 and 151
26. Section 8 CPC deals with the application of the Code to:
(A) Revenue Courts
(B) Presidency Small Cause Courts
(C) Criminal Courts
(D) Family Courts
27. Under Section 8 CPC, the provisions in the body of the Code generally do not extend to suits or proceedings in Presidency Small Cause Courts, except as provided by:
(A) The Indian Penal Code
(B) The Indian Contract Act
(C) Certain specified sections of CPC and the Presidency Small Cause Courts Act, 1882
(D) The Transfer of Property Act
28. Section 9 CPC embodies the principle that civil courts shall try:
(A) Only suits expressly permitted by statute
(B) All suits of civil nature except those expressly or impliedly barred
(C) Only suits involving immovable property
(D) Only suits where government is not a party
29. A suit concerns the right to hold a religious office, and the decision depends entirely on questions of religious rites or ceremonies. Under Section 9 Explanation I, such a suit is:
(A) Not of civil nature because religious questions are involved
(B) Of civil nature if the right to office is contested
(C) Barred unless fees are attached to the office
(D) Maintainable only before a revenue court
30. Under Section 9 Explanation II, for deciding whether a suit is of civil nature, it is immaterial whether:
(A) The defendant has appeared or not
(B) The suit is filed in a District Court or High Court
(C) Any fees are attached to the office or whether such office is attached to a particular place
(D) The suit involves documentary evidence or oral evidence
PART IV: PROCEDURAL LAW
BHARATIYA NYAYA SANHITA, 2023 (BNS)
1. A voluntarily consumes liquor at a party and thereafter commits an act for which the prosecution must prove that he had knowledge of the likely consequence. During trial, A argues that he was incapable of appreciating the nature of the act because of intoxication.
Consider the following statements:
1. If the intoxicant was administered to A without his knowledge or against his will, the exception relating to intoxication may be attracted.
2. Where intoxication is voluntary, A may be dealt with as if he had the same knowledge as he would have had if he were not intoxicated.
3. Voluntary intoxication automatically negatives both knowledge and intention in every offence requiring mens rea.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
2. A surgeon performs a highly risky operation on an adult patient suffering from a painful disease. The patient expressly consents. The surgeon knows that death is likely, but acts in good faith for the patient’s benefit and does not intend death.
Which of the following is the most legally accurate position?
(A) The surgeon is protected only if the operation was not known to be likely to cause death.
(B) The surgeon may be protected because the act was done in good faith for the patient’s benefit, with consent, and without intention to cause death.
(C) The surgeon is liable because consent can never validate an act carrying risk of death.
(D) The surgeon is protected only if the patient survives the operation.
3. Consider the following situations:
1. X voluntarily joins a gang of dacoits after being threatened with ordinary beating and is later compelled by the gang to steal.
2. Y, a blacksmith, is seized by dacoits and compelled at gunpoint, under threat of instant death, to break open a door.
3. Z is compelled by threat of instant death to commit murder.
Who can claim the protection of compulsion by threats under BNS?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 2 only
4. Consider the following statements regarding criminal responsibility of children:
1. An act of a child below seven years is absolutely exempted from criminal liability.
2. A child above seven and below twelve is always liable unless unsoundness of mind is proved.
3. A child aged ten may be exempt if, on that occasion, sufficient maturity to judge the nature and consequences of conduct is absent.
4. A child below twelve is exempt in every case merely because of age.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 3 and 4 only
5. A is threatened by B with a deadly weapon. The assault reasonably causes apprehension of grievous hurt, although B has not yet actually injured A. A retaliates and causes B’s death.
Consider the following statements:
1. The right of private defence of body may commence before actual injury, once reasonable apprehension arises.
2. The right may extend to causing death where the assault reasonably causes apprehension of grievous hurt.
3. If the offence is not specifically covered under the provision extending the right to death, the defender may still voluntarily cause death if he considers it proportionate.
4. The right continues only so long as the reasonable apprehension continues.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
6. A revenue officer, acting in good faith under colour of office, enters X’s land for measurement. The act is later found not strictly justified by law. X knows that the person is a public servant, there is no reasonable apprehension of death or grievous hurt, and X has time to approach lawful authorities. X attacks the officer.
Which of the following is correct?
(A) X has full private defence because the official act was technically illegal.
(B) X may cause even death if he believes his property is affected.
(C) X’s private defence is unaffected by his knowledge that the person was a public servant.
(D) X cannot claim private defence in these circumstances.
7. Z, a person of unsound mind, attempts to kill A. Z may not be criminally liable because of unsoundness of mind.
Consider the following statements:
1. A has no right of private defence because Z commits no offence.
2. A has the same right of private defence as he would have if Z were capable of committing the offence.
3. The same principle applies where the actor is protected because of youth, want of maturity, intoxication or misconception.
4. The right in such cases becomes unlimited and is not subject to statutory restrictions.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 only
8. A sees a child being carried away by a tiger. There is no time to obtain consent from the guardian. A fires at the tiger, knowing that the shot may kill the child, but not intending to kill the child and acting in good faith to save the child. The child is accidentally killed.
Consider the following statements:
1. A may be protected if the circumstances made consent impossible and the act was done in good faith for the child’s benefit.
2. The exception is unavailable in every case where the actor knows that death is likely.
3. Mere pecuniary advantage is not “benefit” for this purpose.
4. The exception permits voluntary causing of hurt for any purpose if the actor claims benefit.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
9. A house-owner finds a thief running away with movable property. There is no reasonable apprehension of death or grievous hurt. A intentionally kills the thief.
Consider the following statements:
1. In ordinary theft not accompanied by grave apprehension, private defence of property does not extend to voluntary causing of death.
2. In robbery, the right of private defence of property may extend to causing death.
3. Theft under circumstances reasonably causing apprehension of death or grievous hurt may justify causing death in private defence.
4. Criminal trespass always permits voluntary causing of death.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
10. A is attacked by a mob attempting to murder him. He cannot effectively exercise his right of private defence without firing at the mob. Some children are mixed with the mob, and there is a risk of harming them.
Which of the following is most accurate?
(A) A loses the right of private defence because innocent persons may be harmed.
(B) A is protected only if no child is actually harmed.
(C) A can defend himself only after first sustaining actual injury.
(D) A’s right of private defence may extend to running the risk of harm to innocent persons.
BHARATIYA NAGARIK SURAKSHA SANHITA, 2023 (BNSS)
11. A Sessions Judge, after trial, passes a sentence of death and directs that the warrant be executed after the expiry of the appeal period.
Consider the following statements:
1. A Sessions Judge or Additional Sessions Judge may pass a sentence of death, but it is subject to confirmation by the High Court.
2. When a Court of Session passes a death sentence, the proceedings must be submitted to the High Court.
3. The death sentence cannot be executed unless confirmed by the High Court.
4. Confirmation by the State Government is a substitute for High Court confirmation.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 only
12. Consider the following statements regarding sentencing powers of Magistrates:
1. A Chief Judicial Magistrate cannot pass a sentence of death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment exceeding seven years.
2. A Judicial Magistrate of the first class may pass imprisonment up to three years, fine up to ₹50,000, or both, or community service.
3. A Judicial Magistrate of the first class and second class have the same fine powers.
4. A Judicial Magistrate of the second class may pass imprisonment up to one year, fine up to ₹10,000, or both, or community service.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
13. A Magistrate imposes substantive imprisonment and also imprisonment in default of payment of fine.
Consider the following statements:
1. The default imprisonment must not exceed the Magistrate’s powers under BNSS.
2. Where imprisonment is awarded as part of the substantive sentence, default imprisonment cannot exceed one-fourth of the term the Magistrate is competent to inflict as punishment for the offence.
3. Default imprisonment can never be added to a substantive sentence if the substantive sentence is already the maximum awardable by the Magistrate.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
14. At one trial, an accused is convicted of three offences. The Magistrate wants to impose consecutive sentences which, in aggregate, exceed his single-offence sentencing power.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Court may order sentences to run concurrently or consecutively after considering the gravity of offences.
2. It is not necessary to send the offender to a higher Court merely because the aggregate punishment exceeds the single-offence power of that Court.
3. In no case can the consecutive imprisonment exceed twenty years.
4. The aggregate punishment may exceed twice the punishment which the Court is competent to inflict for a single offence if the offences are grave.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
15. The State Government appoints a person as Public Prosecutor for a district. His name is not in the panel prepared by the District Magistrate in consultation with the Sessions Judge, and no regular prosecuting cadre exception applies.
Consider the following statements:
1. The District Magistrate must prepare a panel in consultation with the Sessions Judge.
2. Ordinarily, no person can be appointed as District Public Prosecutor unless his name appears in that panel.
3. Where a regular cadre of prosecuting officers exists, appointment is ordinarily to be made from that cadre.
4. The State Government has absolute discretion to appoint any advocate of seven years’ standing, irrespective of the panel.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 only
16. In a district, no Assistant Public Prosecutor is available for a particular case. The District Magistrate proposes to appoint a police officer to act as APP in charge of that case.
Consider the following statements:
1. The appointment may be made after giving notice of fourteen days to the State Government.
2. A police officer below the rank of Inspector is ineligible.
3. A police officer who took part in investigation of the same offence is ineligible.
4. Consent of the accused or victim can cure statutory ineligibility.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
17. Consider the following statements regarding Special Courts of Judicial Magistrates and Special Judicial Magistrates:
1. A Special Court of Judicial Magistrate may be established for a particular case or class of cases, and other Magistrate Courts in that local area lose jurisdiction over that assigned class.
2. The presiding officers of Courts of Judicial Magistrates are appointed by the State Government.
3. The High Court may, if requested by the Central or State Government, confer Judicial Magistrate powers upon a person who holds or has held a Government post, subject to prescribed legal qualification or experience.
4. A Special Judicial Magistrate may be appointed for any term exceeding one year at a time.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 3 and 4 only
18. Consider the following statements regarding the Directorate of Prosecution:
1. The Director of Prosecution monitors cases punishable with ten years or more, life imprisonment or death.
2. The Deputy Director of Prosecution monitors cases punishable with seven years or more but less than ten years.
3. The Assistant Director of Prosecution monitors cases punishable with less than seven years.
4. The Directorate provisions apply to the Advocate General while performing functions of Public Prosecutor.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
19. Consider the following statements regarding criminal courts and trial of offences:
1. Besides High Courts and courts constituted under other laws, the classes of criminal courts include Courts of Session, Judicial Magistrates of first class, Judicial Magistrates of second class and Executive Magistrates.
2. Offences under BNS may be tried by the High Court, Court of Session, or any other Court shown in the First Schedule.
3. Where no Court is mentioned for an offence under another law, it can be tried only by the High Court.
4. Certain specified sexual offences under BNS are to be tried, as far as practicable, by a Court presided over by a woman.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 4 only
20. Consider the following statements regarding jurisdiction and subordination of Magistrates:
1. Subject to the control of the High Court, the Chief Judicial Magistrate may define the local limits of Judicial Magistrates.
2. Every Chief Judicial Magistrate is subordinate to the Sessions Judge.
3. Executive Magistrates are subordinate to the Sessions Judge.
4. Subject to the control of the State Government, the District Magistrate may define the local limits of Executive Magistrates.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
BHARATIYA SAKSHYA ADHINIYAM, 2023 (BSA)
21. A is tried for the murder of B by beating him with a club. The prosecution has to prove the act, causal connection and mental element.
Which of the following would be facts in issue?
1. A beat B with the club.
2. A’s beating caused B’s death.
3. A intended to cause B’s death.
4. A wore blue clothes at an unrelated wedding one year earlier.
Select the correct answer:
(A) 1 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only
22. During a violent assault, several bystanders shout, the victim cries for help, and the accused makes a statement while striking the victim. A related chase occurs immediately thereafter in another lane.
Consider the following statements:
1. Facts forming part of the same transaction may be relevant even if they occur at different times and places.
2. Statements and acts of bystanders during the assault may be relevant if they form part of the transaction.
3. A disconnected statement made one week later automatically becomes part of the same transaction.
4. In a libel suit based on one letter, related correspondence forming part of the same correspondence may be relevant even if it does not itself contain the libel.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 4 only
23. In a trial involving poisoning, robbery and murder, the prosecution seeks to prove surrounding facts.
Consider the following statements:
1. The state of the victim’s health before symptoms of poison, and habits known to the accused, may be relevant as affording opportunity.
2. Purchase of poison similar to the poison administered may be relevant as preparation.
3. Marks on the ground caused by a struggle near the place of murder are irrelevant unless an eyewitness saw the struggle.
4. The fact that the victim had money shortly before a robbery may be relevant.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
24. A is accused of robbery. After the robbery, C says in A’s presence, “The police are coming to search for the robber,” and A immediately runs away.
Consider the following statements:
1. Every statement is conduct merely because it is spoken.
2. When conduct is relevant, a statement made to a person in his presence and hearing, which affects such conduct, may be relevant.
3. A’s immediate flight after C’s statement may be relevant as conduct influenced by a relevant fact.
4. A statement not amounting to conduct may still be relevant under some other provision.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
25. A, B and C are alleged to have conspired to commit an offence. After the common intention is first entertained, B writes a letter arranging funds for the conspiracy. A claims that he never saw the letter.
Consider the following statements:
1. Reasonable ground to believe in the conspiracy is necessary before the conspiracy rule can operate.
2. Anything said, done or written by one conspirator in reference to the common design, after the common intention began, may be relevant against others.
3. Such material is relevant against A only if A personally saw or authorised the letter.
4. Such material may be relevant both to prove the existence of conspiracy and to show that a person was party to it.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
26. A is charged with committing an offence in Chennai on a particular day. A proves that on the same day he was in Ladakh.
Consider the following statements:
1. The fact is relevant because it is inconsistent with the alleged commission of the offence.
2. A fact is relevant under this principle only when it makes commission absolutely impossible, not merely highly improbable.
3. Where the crime must have been committed by A, B, C or D, facts showing that it was not committed by B, C or D may be relevant.
4. Facts not otherwise relevant can never become relevant merely because they alter probability.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 4 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
27. In a civil suit, the plaintiff claims damages and also asserts a customary right of passage over land.
Consider the following statements:
1. Facts enabling the Court to determine the amount of damages are relevant in suits where damages are claimed.
2. Transactions by which a right or custom was created, claimed, modified, recognised, asserted or denied may be relevant.
3. Particular instances of exercise or dispute of a custom are always irrelevant.
4. Facts relating to quantum of damages become irrelevant once liability is denied.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
28. A is accused of fraudulently delivering counterfeit currency, knowing it to be counterfeit. The prosecution relies on A’s possession of several other counterfeit notes and prior similar conduct.
Consider the following statements:
1. Facts showing state of mind must ordinarily relate to the particular matter in question, not merely to general disposition.
2. Possession of several similar counterfeit notes may be relevant to show knowledge.
3. A general tendency to commit crimes of that class is always relevant to prove the charged offence.
4. Prior similar conduct may be relevant where it specifically bears on intention or knowledge in issue.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
29. A is accused of burning down his insured house to obtain insurance money. Evidence shows that A had earlier lived in several insured houses, each of which caught fire, followed by insurance payments.
Consider the following statements:
1. Similar occurrences in a series may be relevant where the question is whether an act was accidental or intentional.
2. Earlier insured house fires may be relevant to show that the present fire was not accidental.
3. Only a previous conviction can be used to show intention; similar occurrences are never relevant.
4. Similar occurrences are conclusive proof of guilt.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1 and 2 only
30. The question is whether a particular letter was dispatched and reached A. Evidence is led that all letters placed in a particular tray were ordinarily carried to the post, the disputed letter was placed in that tray, it was posted in due course, and it was not returned through the Return Letter Office.
Consider the following statements:
1. Ordinary course of business may be relevant to prove that a particular act was done.
2. Dispatch can be proved only by producing the person who physically posted the letter.
3. Posting in due course and non-return may be relevant to show that the letter reached A.
4. Course of business is irrelevant in legal proceedings because it is only routine practice.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 only
ANSWER KEY WITH ONE-LINER EXPLANATIONS
BASIC PHYSICS
1. B — Zero acceleration: Uniform velocity means speed and direction remain constant; therefore, acceleration is zero.
2. B — 5 m/s²: Acceleration = Force ÷ Mass = 15 ÷ 3 = 5 m/s².
3. C — 10 N: Force = Mass × Acceleration = 4 × 2.5 = 10 N.
4. B — Work done is zero: Work is done only when force produces displacement.
5. C — 200 J: Work = mgh = 10 × 10 × 2 = 200 J.
6. D — Force: Force is a vector quantity because it has both magnitude and direction.
7. C — Frictional force: Brakes stop a vehicle mainly by producing friction against motion.
8. A — Mass and velocity: Kinetic energy is given by ½mv², so it depends on mass and velocity.
9. C — Four times: Kinetic energy is proportional to the square of velocity; if velocity is doubled, kinetic energy becomes four times.
10. C — 20 W: Power = Work ÷ Time = 600 ÷ 30 = 20 W.
REASONING
1. B — Joule: Newton is the SI unit of force; Joule is the SI unit of work.
2. A — Fins: Wings help birds move; fins help fish move in water.
3. B — Hammer: A stethoscope is used by a doctor; a hammer is commonly used by a carpenter.
4. C — Displacement: Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity; velocity is the rate of change of displacement.
5. B — Bird: A seed develops into a tree; an egg develops into a bird.
6. D — Kilogram: Joule, Newton and Watt are derived SI units, while kilogram is a base SI unit.
7. D — Cylinder: Cylinder is a three-dimensional solid, while the others are two-dimensional figures.
8. D — Coal: Iron, copper and aluminium are metals; coal is a non-metallic fuel.
9. D — Speed: Velocity, displacement and force are vector quantities, while speed is a scalar quantity.
10. C — Moon: Mercury, Venus and Mars are planets, while the Moon is a natural satellite.
CPC SECTIONS 1–9
1. B — Section 1 gives the short title as “The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908”.
2. D — Section 1 deals with short title, commencement and extent, not jurisdiction of civil courts.
3. B — CPC extends to the whole of India except Nagaland and tribal areas, subject to extension by notification.
4. B — “Code” includes rules, and rules include rules/forms in the First Schedule and rules made under CPC rule-making provisions.
5. B — A decree formally and conclusively determines the rights of parties regarding matters in controversy in a suit.
6. C — Dismissal of a suit for default is expressly excluded from the definition of decree.
7. C — An adjudication appealable as an appeal from an order is excluded from the definition of decree.
8. B — It is a preliminary decree because further proceedings are required before complete disposal of the suit.
9. B — A decree may be preliminary, final, or partly preliminary and partly final.
10. B — A decree-holder includes a person in whose favour a decree or executable order has been made.
11. C — “District” includes the local limits of the principal Civil Court of original jurisdiction and ordinary original civil jurisdiction of a High Court.
12. B — A foreign court must be outside India and not established or continued by authority of the Central Government.
13. B — A foreign judgment means the judgment of a foreign court.
14. B — A judgment gives the grounds of a decree or order, while a decree is the formal expression of adjudication.
15. C — A person intermeddling with the estate of a deceased person is included within “legal representative”.
16. B — In representative litigation, the person on whom the estate devolves is included as legal representative.
17. D — Mesne profits exclude profits due to improvements made by the person in wrongful possession.
18. B — “Movable property” expressly includes growing crops.
19. A — An order is the formal expression of a Civil Court’s decision which is not a decree.
20. C — Section 3 places District Courts under High Courts and inferior Civil Courts/Small Cause Courts under the High Court and District Court.
21. B — Section 4 saves special/local laws, special jurisdiction, special powers and special procedure unless specifically affected.
22. B — A Revenue Court relates to suits or proceedings concerning rent, revenue or profits of agricultural land.
23. C — Section 6 makes clear that CPC does not enlarge a court’s pecuniary jurisdiction beyond its ordinary limits.
24. B — Section 7 concerns Provincial Small Cause Courts and courts exercising Small Cause Court jurisdiction.
25. B — Section 7 specifically mentions Section 9 and Sections 91 and 92 among provisions not extending to Provincial Small Cause Courts.
26. B — Section 8 deals with the application of the Code to Presidency Small Cause Courts.
27. C — Section 8 applies only certain specified CPC provisions and provisions under the Presidency Small Cause Courts Act, 1882.
28. B — Section 9 gives civil courts jurisdiction to try all suits of civil nature unless expressly or impliedly barred.
29. B — Under Explanation I to Section 9, a suit for an office is civil in nature even if it depends on religious rites or ceremonies.
30. C — Explanation II says it is immaterial whether fees are attached to the office or whether it is attached to a particular place.
BHARATIYA NYAYA SANHITA, 2023 (BNS)
1. C — Involuntary intoxication may attract the exception, but voluntary intoxication does not erase imputed knowledge.
2. B — Good-faith medical treatment for benefit with consent is protected where death is not intended.
3. D — The seized blacksmith is protected; voluntary joining of dacoits and murder are not protected.
4. A — Below seven is absolute immunity; seven to twelve depends on maturity on that occasion.
5. C — Private defence may begin on reasonable apprehension and may extend to death in specified grave assaults.
6. D — No private defence lies against such good-faith official act where no grave apprehension exists and public remedy is available.
7. B — Private defence exists even against acts excused by unsoundness, youth, intoxication or misconception.
8. A — Emergency good-faith acts for benefit without consent may be protected; mere pecuniary benefit is excluded.
9. C — Ordinary theft permits defensive harm short of death, but aggravated property offences may justify causing death.
10. D — In deadly assault, the defender’s right may extend to risking harm to innocent persons.
BHARATIYA NAGARIK SURAKSHA SANHITA, 2023 (BNSS)
11. D — Death sentence by Sessions Court requires High Court confirmation before execution.
12. A — CJM, first-class Magistrate and second-class Magistrate have distinct sentencing ceilings.
13. C — Default imprisonment is limited by Magistrate power and the one-fourth rule where substantive imprisonment exists.
14. B — Consecutive sentences are allowed, but aggregate limits of twenty years and twice the single-offence power apply.
15. D — District Public Prosecutor appointment is tied to the DM-Sessions Judge panel, subject to cadre provisions.
16. C — Police officers below Inspector or involved in investigation of the same offence are ineligible.
17. A — Special Magistrate jurisdiction can be exclusive, and High Court may confer powers on qualified Government post holders.
18. B — Monitoring is divided among Director, Deputy Director and Assistant Director by punishment range.
19. D — Criminal courts include Sessions/Judicial/Executive Magistrates, and specified BNS offences follow special trial requirements.
20. C — Judicial Magistrates are under Sessions/CJM structure, while Executive Magistrates are under DM/State control.
BHARATIYA SAKSHYA ADHINIYAM, 2023 (BSA)
21. B — Act, causation and intention are facts in issue in murder by beating.
22. D — Same transaction may include connected acts/statements across time and place, but not disconnected later statements.
23. A — Opportunity, preparation and surrounding circumstances may be relevant; eyewitness proof is not the only mode.
24. C — Statements affecting relevant conduct may be proved, though every statement is not conduct.
25. B — Conspirator acts/writings after common intention begins may bind co-conspirators even without personal knowledge.
26. D — Alibi and facts excluding other possible offenders may be relevant by inconsistency or high improbability.
27. C — Damages quantum and transactions relating to rights/customs are relevant.
28. A — Specific state of mind may be shown by connected similar facts, not by mere general criminal disposition.
29. D — Similar series of occurrences may show accident or intention but are not conclusive proof.
30. B — Course of business can prove dispatch, and due posting with non-return may help prove receipt.
Haryana ADA Mains Test Series & Mentorship – Max 60 Advocates.
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- Interview Sessions- 5.
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Haryana ADA Complete Mains Test Series & Mentorship- 6000 Rupees. The plan is of 4000 Rupees for advocates of Haryana with 5 years of Practice or from date of sanad. This plan validity is for 4 months starting from 25th May 2026. All disputes subject to Chandigarh District Court Jurisdiction.
Mentor and curator of Series Details- Rohit Sharma- Passout (Rgnul). 100 PSU and ADA selections.
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