Haryana ADA Mains Test Series & Mentorship – Max 60 Advocates.
- One to one mentoring (Max 12 sessions.)
- 20 Full Length Haryana Mains Tests
- Interview Sessions- 5.
- Daily answer writing.
- Video Broadcast session for strategy and momentum boost.
Haryana ADA Complete Mains Test Series & Mentorship- 6000 Rupees. The plan is of 4000 Rupees for advocates of Haryana with 5 years of Practice or from date of sanad. This plan validity is for 4 months starting from 25th May 2026. All disputes subject to Chandigarh District Court Jurisdiction.
Mentor and curator of Series Details- Rohit Sharma- Passout (Rgnul). 100 PSU and ADA selections.
Harsh Singh- Pass out NLSIU Bangalore 2017. Policy Expert. Drafted 10 Legislations for Defence Cantonments. Cleared written of UPSC ED, CBI exam in 2026.
Contact via Whatsapp- 9816789740.
Part I: CPC — Section 10, Section 11, Constructive Res Judicata and Representative Suits
1. A suit filed in Court X seeks a declaration of title over land. Later, the defendant files another suit in Court Y seeking an injunction against interference with possession over the same land. Both suits involve the same parties. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding Section 10 CPC?
(A) Section 10 will automatically apply because the property and parties are the same.
(B) Section 10 will apply only if the matter directly and substantially in issue in the later suit is also directly and substantially in issue in the earlier suit.
(C) Section 10 will not apply because the reliefs claimed in both suits are different.
(D) Section 10 applies only where both suits are based on the same cause of action.
2. Which one of the following is not an essential requirement for applying Section 10 CPC?
(A) The previously instituted suit must be pending.
(B) The matter in issue in both suits must be directly and substantially the same.
(C) The previously instituted suit must have been finally decided.
(D) The parties must be the same or must claim through parties litigating under the same title.
3. A files Suit No. 1 against B in 2022 in a competent civil court. In 2024, B files Suit No. 2 against A in another competent court involving the same directly and substantially disputed issue. During Suit No. 2, A applies under Section 10 CPC. Which statement is correct?
(A) The court must reject the application because B is the plaintiff in the second suit.
(B) Section 10 may apply because the identity of the parties, not their position as plaintiff or defendant, is material.
(C) Section 10 applies only where the plaintiff in both suits is the same.
(D) Section 10 applies only if both suits claim identical relief.
4. A suit involving the same parties and the same matter directly and substantially in issue is pending before a foreign court not established or continued by the Central Government. Later, a suit is filed in India. What is the legal position under CPC?
(A) The Indian court must stay the subsequent Indian suit under Section 10.
(B) The Indian court cannot try the suit because foreign pendency creates res sub judice.
(C) The pendency of the foreign suit does not preclude the Indian court from trying the suit.
(D) The Indian court must wait until the foreign court decides the dispute.
5. Which of the following statements regarding Section 10 CPC is/are correct?
- It bars the institution of a subsequent suit.
- It bars the trial of a subsequent suit when statutory conditions are satisfied.
- It is intended to avoid parallel trials of substantially identical issues.
- It applies even when the earlier suit is pending before a court having no jurisdiction to grant the relief claimed.
Select the correct answer:
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only
6. A files a suit for specific performance against B. B does not plead that the contract was voidable due to fraud, though the facts were known to him and such a defence was available. The suit is decided. Later, B files a fresh suit seeking cancellation of the same contract on the ground of fraud. Which doctrine is most directly attracted?
(A) Res sub judice under Section 10
(B) Constructive res judicata under Explanation IV to Section 11
(C) Representative res judicata under Explanation VI to Section 11
(D) Deemed refusal of relief under Explanation V to Section 11
7. For the application of constructive res judicata, which of the following must generally be shown?
- The matter could have been raised in the former suit.
- The matter ought to have been raised in the former suit.
- The matter must necessarily have been expressly decided in the former suit.
- The matter is deemed to have been directly and substantially in issue.
Select the correct answer:
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
8. A former suit was dismissed after full adjudication on merits by a court competent to try the latter suit. In the later suit, one party attempts to reopen the same issue by arguing that the earlier judgment was not appealed against and therefore cannot operate as res judicata. Which statement is correct?
(A) Res judicata applies only if the earlier judgment was affirmed on appeal.
(B) Competence of the former court is judged irrespective of the right of appeal.
(C) Res judicata applies only where no appeal was legally available.
(D) Res judicata cannot apply unless the earlier decree was passed by the highest court.
9. In a previous suit, A claimed three reliefs against B. The court expressly granted only one relief and remained silent on the other two reliefs. A later files a fresh suit claiming one of the omitted reliefs. Which provision best answers the situation?
(A) Explanation V to Section 11: Relief not expressly granted is deemed refused.
(B) Explanation VI to Section 11: Representative litigation binds all interested persons.
(C) Section 10 CPC: the latter suit must be stayed.
(D) Explanation VIII to Section 11: A decision by a court of limited jurisdiction operates as res judicata.
10. Which of the following statements about Section 11 CPC is/are correct?
- The former suit must have been heard and finally decided upon.
- The matter must have been directly and substantially in issue in the former suit.
- The former suit must always have been instituted earlier than the latter suit.
- The parties must have litigated under the same title.
Select the correct answer:
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
11. Suit A was instituted in 2020 but decided in 2025. Suit B was instituted in 2022 but decided in 2024. In a subsequent proceeding, the issue decided in Suit B is relied upon as res judicata. Which statement is correct?
(A) Suit B can never be a former suit because it was instituted later than Suit A.
(B) Suit B may be treated as a former suit because “former suit” means a suit decided prior in time, whether or not instituted prior.
(C) Only the suit first instituted can operate as res judicata.
(D) Neither suit can operate as res judicata unless both were instituted and decided in the same chronological order.
12. A decision on an issue is given by a court of limited pecuniary jurisdiction. Later, the same issue arises in a higher-value suit between the same parties. Which statement best reflects Explanation VIII to Section 11 CPC?
(A) The earlier decision can never operate as res judicata because the earlier court could not try the later suit.
(B) The earlier decision may operate as res judicata if the limited jurisdiction court was competent to decide that issue.
(C) Explanation VIII applies only to criminal proceedings.
(D) Explanation VIII applies only where the earlier court had unlimited jurisdiction.
13. A public pathway is claimed by several villagers. One villager, after obtaining proper permission and bona fide litigating the issue in a representative capacity, loses the suit. Later, another villager files a fresh suit claiming the same public pathway right. Which statement is correct?
(A) The latter suit is maintainable because the second villager was not formally a party.
(B) The earlier decision may bind all persons interested in the public right if the representative litigation was bona fide.
(C) Res judicata can never apply to public rights.
(D) Representative suits bind only named plaintiffs and defendants.
14. In a representative suit under Order I Rule 8 CPC, which of the following is/are generally necessary?
- Numerous persons must have the same interest in the suit.
- The court must grant permission or give direction for representative litigation.
- Notice of institution of the suit must be given to interested persons.
- All represented persons must have the same cause of action.
Select the correct answer:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
15. In a representative suit, the plaintiff seeks to withdraw the suit after compromise with the defendant. Several persons represented in the suit object that they were not given notice of the proposed compromise. Which statement is most accurate?
(A) The plaintiff may withdraw or compromise as of right because he alone filed the suit.
(B) No withdrawal, abandonment, or compromise should ordinarily be allowed without notice to the persons interested.
(C) Notice is unnecessary because the decree binds only the named plaintiff.
(D) The suit automatically becomes non-representative once compromise is proposed.
Part II: General Science — Sound, Light, Heat and Temperature
16. When an object such as a tuning fork, stretched string, drum membrane, or bell moves rapidly to and fro, it produces sound. This production of sound is mainly due to:
(A) Reflection
(B) Vibration
(C) Refraction
(D) Radiation
17. Sound needs a material medium such as air, water, wood, metal, or any other substance for its propagation. Therefore, sound cannot travel through:
(A) Solids
(B) Liquids
(C) Gases
(D) Vacuum
18. In sound waves and other periodic motions, the number of complete vibrations or oscillations made in one second is called frequency. The SI unit of frequency is:
(A) Decibel
(B) Hertz
(C) Joule
(D) Watt
19. In general science, the loudness or intensity level of sound is commonly expressed using a special unit. The unit used for measuring the loudness of sound is:
(A) Hertz
(B) Decibel
(C) Newton
(D) Pascal
20. Sound travels at different speeds in different media because the arrangement of particles is different in solids, liquids, and gases. The speed of sound is generally maximum in:
(A) Solids
(B) Liquids
(C) Gases
(D) Vacuum
21. In a uniform transparent medium, light normally travels without bending unless it meets another medium or obstacle. This property shows that light travels in a:
(A) Curved path only
(B) Zigzag path
(C) Straight line
(D) Circular path
22. When white light passes through a glass prism, it separates into seven colours such as violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. This phenomenon is known as:
(A) Reflection
(B) Refraction
(C) Dispersion
(D) Diffusion
23. A plane mirror is commonly used at homes because it forms an image that appears to be behind the mirror and is upright. The image formed by a plane mirror is:
(A) Real and inverted
(B) Virtual and erect
(C) Real and erect
(D) Virtual and inverted
24. When two bodies at different temperatures are kept in contact, heat flows naturally from one body to another until thermal balance is reached. Heat always flows naturally from:
(A) Lower temperature to higher temperature
(B) Higher temperature to lower temperature
(C) Smaller body to larger body
(D) Larger body to smaller body
25. The average normal temperature of a healthy human body is an important factual value frequently asked in general science examinations. The normal human body temperature is approximately:
(A) 25°C
(B) 30°C
(C) 37°C
(D) 45°C
Part III: Numeracy — Number System and Divisibility Rules
26. In the number system, divisibility rules help us identify whether a number can be divided completely without leaving any remainder. A number is divisible by 2 if its last digit is:
(A) Odd
(B) Even
(C) Prime
(D) Composite
27. For checking divisibility by 3, it is not necessary to divide the whole number directly. A number is divisible by 3 if:
(A) Its last digit is 3.
(B) Its sum of digits is divisible by 3.
(C) Its last two digits are divisible by 3.
(D) It ends with 0 or 5.
28. The divisibility rule of 5 is one of the simplest rules in the number system. A number is divisible by 5 if its last digit is:
(A) 0 or 5
(B) 2 or 4
(C) 3 or 6
(D) 7 or 9
29. To check whether a given number is divisible by 9, the digits of the number are added together. A number is divisible by 9 if:
(A) Its last digit is 9.
(B) Its first digit is 9.
(C) Its sum of digits is divisible by 9.
(D) Its last two digits are divisible by 9.
30. Divisibility by 10 depends only on the unit digit of the number and is commonly used in basic arithmetic. A number is divisible by 10 if its last digit is:
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 0
(D) 9
31. For checking divisibility by 4, the complete number need not be divided. A number is divisible by 4 if:
(A) Its last digit is divisible by 4.
(B) Its last two digits are divisible by 4.
(C) Its sum of digits is divisible by 4.
(D) It ends with 4 only.
32. Divisibility by 8 is checked by observing a specific part of the given number rather than the full number. A number is divisible by 8 if:
(A) Its last digit is divisible by 8.
(B) Its last two digits are divisible by 8.
(C) Its last three digits are divisible by 8.
(D) Its sum of digits is divisible by 8.
33. The divisibility rule of 11 is based on the difference between the sums of digits placed alternately in a number. A number is divisible by 11 if:
(A) The sum of all digits is divisible by 11.
(B) The difference between the sums of digits at alternate places is 0 or divisible by 11.
(C) The last two digits are divisible by 11.
(D) The number ends with 11.
34. A prime number is a natural number greater than 1 which has exactly two factors, 1 and the number itself. The smallest prime number is:
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
35. Among all prime numbers, there is only one prime number that is even because it has exactly two factors, 1 and itself. The only even prime number is:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 6
Part IV: Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 — Sections 1–44
36. A foreign national, sitting in another country, intentionally deploys malicious code into a banking server physically located in India. He argues that BNS cannot apply because neither he nor the act was physically inside India. Which statement is most accurate under BNS Section 1?
(A) BNS applies only when both the accused and the computer resource are physically within India.
(B) BNS applies only to Indian citizens committing acts outside India.
(C) BNS cannot apply because cyber-targeting is governed only by special law.
(D) BNS may apply because it covers a person outside India committing an offence targeting a computer resource located in India.
37. A person drops a heavy stone from a terrace during a protest. He says he did not desire injury to anyone, but he knew that people were standing below and injury was highly likely. For determining whether he caused the effect “voluntarily”, which principle is correct?
(A) It is enough if he intended the means or knew/reasonably believed the effect was likely from those means.
(B) Voluntariness requires proof that he specifically desired the exact injury caused.
(C) Voluntariness is excluded whenever the final result is greater than what was desired.
(D) Voluntariness applies only to acts, never to illegal omissions.
38. Which of the following correctly states the punishments recognized under BNS Section 4?
(A) Death, imprisonment for life, transportation, fine and forfeiture of property.
(B) Death, rigorous imprisonment only, simple imprisonment only and fine.
(C) Death, imprisonment for life, imprisonment, forfeiture of property, fine and community service.
(D) Imprisonment, fine, probation, compensation and community service.
39. Where a provision directs that imprisonment shall be for a fraction of “imprisonment for life”, how is imprisonment for life to be reckoned for calculating that fraction under BNS?
(A) As fourteen years.
(B) As twenty years.
(C) As the natural life of the convict in every calculation.
(D) As the maximum term fixed by the sentencing court.
40. One physical act of the accused satisfies two offence definitions under BNS, and no express provision authorises separate punishment for both. Which is the correct sentencing principle?
(A) The accused must compulsorily receive cumulative punishment for both definitions.
(B) The court may punish him twice if both ingredients are technically proved.
(C) The accused must be acquitted of one offence before sentence can be passed for the other.
(D) The punishment cannot exceed what the court could award for any one of such offences.
41. A convict is sentenced to rigorous imprisonment for nine months. The court wants to impose solitary confinement as part of the sentence. What is the maximum total solitary confinement permissible under the BNS scale?
(A) One month.
(B) Two months.
(C) Three months.
(D) Nine months, if broken into intervals.
42. A court officer arrests R, honestly and after due verification, believing R to be the person named in a valid warrant. It later turns out that the arrested person was not the person named in the warrant. Which exception is most directly relevant?
(A) Accident in doing a lawful act.
(B) Act causing slight harm.
(C) Act done by a person bound, or by mistake of fact believing himself bound, by law.
(D) Communication made in good faith.
43. A licensed archer, during a lawful sports demonstration, uses proper safety checks. Due to an unforeseeable defect in the bowstring, an arrow deviates and causes injury. Which option best explains the possible defence?
(A) Accident in doing a lawful act with proper care and caution may apply.
(B) The defence fails because every injury during a dangerous act is criminal.
(C) The defence applies only where the act is done under compulsion.
(D) The defence applies only where the injured person had consented in writing.
44. Which of the following consents is not valid consent for purposes of BNS general exceptions?
- Consent given under fear of injury, where the doer knows or has reason to believe that fear caused the consent.
- Consent given by a person of unsound mind who cannot understand the nature and consequence of the act.
- Consent given by a child below twelve years of age, unless the contrary appears from the context.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
45. Regarding private defence of property under BNS, which statement is most accurate?
(A) The right begins only after actual loss of property is completed.
(B) In theft, the right may continue until the offender has effected retreat with the property, public assistance is obtained, or the property is recovered.
(C) The right continues indefinitely until the offender is arrested by police.
(D) The right exists only when the property is immovable.
Part V: Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 — Sections 1–25
46. Under BNSS Section 1, which statement correctly reflects its territorial application to Nagaland and tribal areas?
(A) BNSS applies to all areas of India without any exception or modification.
(B) BNSS does not apply to Nagaland and tribal areas under any circumstance.
(C) Certain provisions, except the specified chapters, do not apply there unless applied by State Government notification.
(D) Only provisions relating to trial before Court of Session apply there.
47. In BNSS, “investigation” principally includes proceedings for collection of evidence conducted by whom?
(A) A police officer or a person authorised by a Magistrate, but not by the Magistrate himself.
(B) Only the trial court after cognizance has been taken.
(C) Only the complainant and his private counsel.
(D) Only an Executive Magistrate exercising preventive powers.
48. An offence under a special environmental statute provides its own special procedure for investigation and trial. In the absence of inconsistency, how will BNSS operate?
(A) BNSS is entirely excluded whenever an offence is under a special statute.
(B) BNSS applies only to BNS offences and never to offences under other laws.
(C) BNSS overrides every special procedure in every other law.
(D) Offences under other laws are generally dealt with according to BNSS, subject to any special procedure in that law.
49. A local law creates a special forum and a special procedure for a class of offences. There is no specific contrary provision in BNSS affecting it. What is the effect of the BNSS saving clause?
(A) The local law is automatically repealed.
(B) The special/local law, special jurisdiction, power and procedure are generally preserved.
(C) Only the punishment under the local law survives, not the procedure.
(D) The High Court must approve the local procedure again.
50. Which statement is correct regarding the Court of Session under BNSS?
(A) The State Government appoints Sessions Judges directly without High Court involvement.
(B) A Court of Session is established only for metropolitan areas.
(C) The State Government establishes a Court of Session for every sessions division, and the High Court appoints the Judge of that Court.
(D) Assistant Sessions Judges may impose any sentence including death.
51. Which of the following is correct regarding Chief Judicial Magistrates and Additional Chief Judicial Magistrates under BNSS?
(A) They are appointed by the District Magistrate.
(B) They are appointed only by the State Government after consultation with police.
(C) Every Judicial Magistrate of second class automatically becomes Additional Chief Judicial Magistrate.
(D) The High Court appoints a Judicial Magistrate of the first class as Chief Judicial Magistrate and may appoint Additional Chief Judicial Magistrates.
52. A Judicial Magistrate has been appointed, but his local jurisdiction has not been specially defined. What is the ordinary result under BNSS?
(A) His jurisdiction extends throughout the district, unless otherwise provided.
(B) He cannot exercise any jurisdiction until a fresh notification is issued.
(C) His jurisdiction is limited only to the police station nearest to his court.
(D) He can act only after approval from the District Magistrate.
53. Under BNSS, who may generally define the local limits within which Executive Magistrates may exercise their powers, subject to State Government control?
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(B) Sessions Judge
(C) District Magistrate
(D) Public Prosecutor
54. Which statement best reflects the subordination of Executive Magistrates under BNSS?
(A) All Executive Magistrates are subordinate to the Chief Judicial Magistrate.
(B) Executive Magistrates, other than Additional District Magistrates, are generally subordinate to the District Magistrate.
(C) Executive Magistrates are subordinate only to the Sessions Judge.
(D) Special Executive Magistrates are never subordinate to any District Magistrate.
55. Which sentence can an Assistant Sessions Judge not pass under BNSS Section 22?
(A) Imprisonment for life
(B) Imprisonment for seven years
(C) Fine along with imprisonment within his competence
(D) Imprisonment for ten years, where authorised by law
Part VI: Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 — Sections 1–14
56. Which statement correctly describes the application of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
(A) It applies to arbitration proceedings but not to criminal trials.
(B) It applies to judicial proceedings, but not to affidavits presented to a court or officer, nor to arbitration proceedings.
(C) It applies only to criminal courts and not to civil courts.
(D) It applies only when evidence is recorded physically and not electronically.
57. Under BSA, which of the following is excluded from the definition of “Court”?
(A) Judges legally authorised to take evidence.
(B) Magistrates legally authorised to take evidence.
(C) Persons legally authorised to take evidence.
(D) Arbitrators.
58. Which option most accurately states the meaning of “evidence” under BSA?
(A) It includes statements permitted by the Court before it, including electronically given statements, and documents including electronic or digital records produced for inspection.
(B) It includes only oral testimony given physically inside the courtroom.
(C) It excludes electronic records unless separately certified by police.
(D) It means only documentary material and not witness statements.
59. A digitally signed PDF contract, a map, and a caricature are produced before court. Which definition most directly makes such materials capable of being treated as documents?
(A) “Fact”
(B) “Relevant”
(C) “Document”
(D) “Conclusive proof”
60. The Court considers a fact so probable that, in the circumstances of the case, a prudent person ought to act on the supposition that it exists. Under BSA, the fact is:
(A) Disproved
(B) Proved
(C) Not proved
(D) Conclusively disproved
61. Where one fact is declared by law to be conclusive proof of another, what is the court’s duty after proof of the first fact?
(A) It must regard the other fact as proved and cannot allow evidence to disprove it.
(B) It may presume the other fact but must allow rebuttal.
(C) It must call expert evidence before acting on the first fact.
(D) It must treat both facts as merely relevant but not proved.
62. In a prosecution for warehouse theft, electronic lock logs show forced access at midnight, the alarm system stopped functioning minutes before entry, and fresh tyre marks were found near the loading bay immediately after the incident. These facts are primarily relevant because they are:
(A) Confessions by conduct.
(B) Facts proving character of the accused.
(C) Opinions of experts.
(D) Occasion, cause or effect of facts in issue or relevant facts.
63. In a cheating case, the prosecution wants to prove that the accused was the authorised accounts operator of the firm, that the complainant had earlier entrusted the login credentials to him, and that the disputed transaction came from that login. These facts are relevant mainly because they:
(A) Automatically prove guilt without trial.
(B) Are relevant only if admitted by the accused.
(C) Explain or introduce the fact in issue and identify the relation of parties and things involved.
(D) Are inadmissible because they are not themselves the final cheating transaction.
64. The question is whether A knowingly sold stolen electronic goods as genuine goods. Evidence shows that A had, within the same week, sold several devices from the same stolen batch using fake invoices. Which principle is correct?
(A) Such facts may be relevant to show knowledge or intention connected with the matter in issue, not merely general bad character.
(B) Such facts are always irrelevant because they concern other transactions.
(C) Such facts are conclusive proof of guilt.
(D) Such facts are relevant only if A was previously convicted.
65. A court must decide whether an e-notice was sent through the court’s automated case-management system. The system’s ordinary workflow shows notices are auto-generated, emailed to the registered address, logged with time stamps, and bounce reports are automatically recorded. Which BSA provision is most directly attracted?
(A) Facts bearing on whether an act was accidental or intentional.
(B) Facts showing motive.
(C) Facts in issue only.
(D) Existence of course of business when relevant.
ANSWER KEY WITH ONE-LINE EXPLANATIONS
1. B — Section 10 requires identity of the matter directly and substantially in issue, not merely the same property or parties.
2. C — Section 10 applies when the earlier suit is pending; final decision is relevant to Section 11.
3. B — Parties may be reversed; identity of parties or privies litigating under the same title is material.
4. C — Pendency before an ordinary foreign court does not bar an Indian court from trying the Indian suit.
5. B — Section 10 bars trial, not institution, and aims to prevent parallel trials of substantially identical issues.
6. B — A defence that might and ought to have been raised earlier is barred by constructive res judicata.
7. A — Constructive res judicata covers matters that might and ought to have been raised and are deemed directly and substantially in issue.
8. B — Competence of the former court is judged irrespective of provisions relating to appeal.
9. A — Under Explanation V to Section 11, relief claimed but not expressly granted is deemed refused.
10. A — Section 11 requires final decision, direct and substantial identity of issue, and litigation under the same title; prior institution is not essential.
11. B — A suit decided earlier may be a former suit even if it was instituted later.
12. B — A limited-jurisdiction court’s decision may operate as res judicata if it was competent to decide that issue.
13. B — Bona fide representative litigation on a public or common right may bind all interested persons.
14. A — Same interest, court permission or direction, and notice are required; identical cause of action is not essential.
15. B — A representative suit should not ordinarily be withdrawn, abandoned, or compromised without notice to interested persons.
16. B — Sound is produced when an object vibrates.
17. D — Sound requires a material medium and cannot travel through a vacuum.
18. B — Frequency is measured in Hertz.
19. B — Loudness or sound intensity level is measured in decibels.
20. A — Sound generally travels fastest in solids because particles are closely packed.
21. C — Light travels in a straight line in a uniform transparent medium.
22. C — Splitting of white light into its constituent colours is called dispersion.
23. B — A plane mirror forms a virtual and erect image.
24. B — Heat naturally flows from a hotter body to a colder body.
25. C — Normal human body temperature is approximately 37°C.
26. B — A number is divisible by 2 if its last digit is even.
27. B — Divisibility by 3 is checked by adding the digits.
28. A — Numbers ending in 0 or 5 are divisible by 5.
29. C — Divisibility by 9 depends on whether the sum of digits is divisible by 9.
30. C — A number ending in 0 is divisible by 10.
31. B — Divisibility by 4 is checked from the last two digits.
32. C — Divisibility by 8 is checked from the last three digits.
33. B — A number is divisible by 11 if the alternate-place digit-sum difference is 0 or divisible by 11.
34. C — 2 is the smallest prime number.
35. B — 2 is the only even prime number.
36. D — BNS Section 1 covers offences targeting a computer resource located in India even from outside India.
37. A — Voluntariness includes causing an effect by means intended, known, or reasonably believed to be likely.
38. C — BNS Section 4 includes community service along with death, life imprisonment, imprisonment, forfeiture and fine.
39. B — Fractions of life imprisonment are calculated by treating life imprisonment as twenty years.
40. D — BNS prevents excessive punishment where one act falls within multiple offence definitions unless expressly provided.
41. B — For imprisonment exceeding six months but not exceeding one year, solitary confinement cannot exceed two months in total.
42. C — The protection is mistake of fact while believing oneself bound by law, not mistake of law.
43. A — Accident during a lawful act done with proper care and caution may be protected.
44. D — Fear, incapacity due to unsoundness, and child consent limitations affect validity of consent.
45. B — In theft, private defence of property continues until retreat with property, public aid, or recovery.
46. C — BNSS Section 1 creates a limited territorial exception for Nagaland and tribal areas subject to notification.
47. A — Investigation is collection of evidence by police or authorised person other than a Magistrate.
48. D — BNSS generally governs offences under other laws unless the special law provides a distinct procedure.
49. B — The saving clause preserves special/local laws and special jurisdiction/procedure unless specifically affected.
50. C — The State establishes the Court of Session; the High Court appoints its Judge.
51. D — CJM and ACJM appointments are made by the High Court from Judicial Magistrates of first class.
52. A — If local jurisdiction is not defined, jurisdiction ordinarily extends throughout the district.
53. C — District Magistrate defines local limits of Executive Magistrates, subject to State Government control.
54. B — Executive Magistrates are generally subordinate to the District Magistrate, subject to the statutory structure.
55. A — Assistant Sessions Judge cannot pass death, life imprisonment, or imprisonment exceeding ten years.
56. B — BSA applies to judicial proceedings but excludes affidavits and arbitration proceedings.
57. D — Arbitrators are expressly outside the definition of “Court”.
58. A — BSA expressly includes electronic statements and electronic/digital records within evidence.
59. C — “Document” includes matter recorded by letters, figures, marks or electronic/digital means.
60. B — A fact is “proved” when the court believes it exists or considers its existence so probable that a prudent person should act upon it.
61. A — Conclusive proof bars evidence to disprove the legally established fact.
62. D — Lock logs, alarm failure and tyre marks are occasion/cause/effect facts connected with the incident.
63. C — Such facts explain the transaction, identify parties/things and introduce the fact in issue.
64. A — Connected similar transactions may show knowledge or intention, but not mere criminal disposition.
65. D — Automated dispatch workflow and logs are relevant as course of business.
Haryana ADA Mains Test Series & Mentorship – Max 60 Advocates.
- One to one mentoring (Max 12 sessions.)
- 20 Full Length Haryana Mains Tests
- Interview Sessions- 5.
- Daily answer writing.
- Video Broadcast session for strategy and momentum boost.
Haryana ADA Complete Mains Test Series & Mentorship- 6000 Rupees. The plan is of 4000 Rupees for advocates of Haryana with 5 years of Practice or from date of sanad. This plan validity is for 4 months starting from 25th May 2026. All disputes subject to Chandigarh District Court Jurisdiction.
Mentor and curator of Series Details- Rohit Sharma- Passout (Rgnul). 100 PSU and ADA selections.
Harsh Singh- Pass out NLSIU Bangalore 2017. Policy Expert. Drafted 10 Legislations for Defence Cantonments. Cleared written of UPSC ED, CBI exam in 2026.
Contact via Whatsapp- 9816789740.