1. Under Section 100 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, culpable homicide is committed where death is caused by doing an act with-
(1) intention of causing death
(2) intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death
(3) knowledge that the act is likely to cause death
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 3 only
2. A knows that Z is behind a bush. B does not know it. A, intending to cause Z’s death, induces B to fire at the bush. B fires and kills Z. As per the illustration to Section 100, which statement is correct?
(A) B alone commits culpable homicide and A commits no offence.
(B) B may be guilty of no offence, but A commits culpable homicide.
(C) Neither A nor B commits any offence because B fired the shot.
(D) A is liable only for abetment and never for culpable homicide.
3. Under Section 101, culpable homicide is murder if the act by which death is caused is done with the intention of causing bodily injury to any person and the bodily injury intended to be inflicted is-
(A) merely painful
(B) simple hurt
(C) sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death
(D) punishable only as rash or negligent act
4. Which of the following does NOT fall within the protection of Exception 1 to Section 101?
(A) Grave and sudden provocation causing deprivation of self-control
(B) Death of the person who gave provocation
(C) Provocation given by anything done by a public servant in lawful exercise of powers
(D) Death of another person by mistake or accident during grave and sudden provocation
5. Under Section 103(2), when a group of five or more persons acting in concert commits murder on specified grounds such as race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language, personal belief or similar ground, each member shall be punished with-
(A) imprisonment up to seven years and fine
(B) imprisonment up to ten years and fine
(C) death or imprisonment for life and fine
(D) simple imprisonment only
6. Under Section 105, if culpable homicide not amounting to murder is committed with knowledge that the act is likely to cause death but without intention to cause death or such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, the punishment may extend to-
(A) three years and fine
(B) ten years and fine
(C) imprisonment for life only
(D) death or imprisonment for life
7. Consider the following statements regarding Section 106 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:
(1) Rash or negligent act causing death not amounting to culpable homicide is punishable under Section 106.
(2) Where such act is done by a registered medical practitioner while performing medical procedure, the maximum imprisonment is two years.
(3) Rash and negligent driving causing death, followed by escaping without reporting to police officer or Magistrate soon after the incident, may be punished up to ten years.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
8. Under Section 114, hurt means causing-
(1) bodily pain
(2) disease
(3) infirmity
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
9. Which of the following is designated as grievous hurt under Section 116?
(1) Fracture or dislocation of a bone or tooth
(2) Permanent disfiguration of the head or face
(3) Hurt causing the sufferer to be in severe bodily pain for fifteen days
(4) Permanent privation of the hearing of either ear
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 4 only
10. Under Section 118, voluntarily causing hurt by which of the following means may attract the provision relating to dangerous weapons or means?
(1) Instrument for shooting, stabbing or cutting
(2) Fire or heated substance
(3) Poison or corrosive substance
(4) Animal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
11. A police officer tortures Z to induce Z to confess that he committed a crime. Under the illustration to Section 120, A is guilty of an offence relating to-
(A) voluntarily causing hurt to extort confession
(B) wrongful restraint only
(C) simple assault only
(D) unlawful compulsory labour
12. Under Section 122, voluntarily causing grievous hurt on grave and sudden provocation is punishable with imprisonment which may extend to-
(A) one month
(B) one year
(C) three years
(D) five years
13. Which statement is correct regarding Section 124 dealing with voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acid, etc.?
(A) The fine imposed under Section 124(1) shall be paid to the State only.
(B) The minimum punishment under Section 124(1) is ten years and it may extend to imprisonment for life.
(C) Attempt to throw acid is not punishable unless actual permanent disability is caused.
(D) Acid includes only laboratory acid and not corrosive substances of burning nature.
14. Under Section 137, kidnapping is of how many kinds?
(A) One: kidnapping from India only
(B) Two: kidnapping from India and kidnapping from lawful guardianship
(C) Three: kidnapping, abduction and trafficking
(D) Four: kidnapping, abduction, slavery and forced labour
15. Consider the following statements under Sections 143, 144 and 146 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:
(1) Consent of the victim is immaterial in determination of the offence of trafficking.
(2) Knowingly engaging a trafficked child for sexual exploitation is punishable under Section 144.
(3) Unlawfully compelling any person to labour against that person’s will is punishable under Section 146.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
16. Which of the following river-project pairs is correctly matched?
(A) Bhakra Nangal Project – Sutlej
(B) Tehri Dam – Narmada
(C) Hirakud Dam – Godavari
(D) Sardar Sarovar Project – Krishna
17. The Ganga is formed at Devprayag by the confluence of which two rivers?
(A) Alaknanda and Bhagirathi
(B) Yamuna and Chambal
(C) Son and Gandak
(D) Mandakini and Teesta
18. Which of the following is a major tributary of the Yamuna?
(A) Chambal
(B) Kosi
(C) Mahanadi
(D) Periyar
19. The Hirakud Dam is constructed across which river?
(A) Mahanadi
(B) Tapi
(C) Ravi
(D) Krishna
20. Which river is commonly associated with the Sardar Sarovar Project?
(A) Narmada
(B) Godavari
(C) Kaveri
(D) Beas
21. Which river forms a major part of Haryana’s eastern boundary with Uttar Pradesh?
(A) Yamuna
(B) Ghaggar
(C) Markanda
(D) Tangri
22. The Ghaggar river system in Haryana is generally associated with which part of the State?
(A) Northern and western Haryana
(B) Only southern Aravalli region
(C) Only Yamuna floodplain
(D) Only Mewat hills
23. Haryana’s climate is best described as:
(A) Tropical monsoon with hot summers and cool winters
(B) Equatorial throughout the year
(C) Polar and tundra type
(D) Mediterranean with winter-only rainfall
24. Which type of soil is most widespread in the plains of Haryana?
(A) Alluvial soil
(B) Laterite soil
(C) Black cotton soil
(D) Mountain podzol soil
25. The Markanda river is a tributary of which river system commonly associated with Haryana?
(A) Ghaggar system
(B) Narmada system
(C) Kaveri system
(D) Mahanadi system
26. With reference to Section 96 CPC, consider the following statements:
(1) An appeal may lie from an original decree passed ex parte.
(2) No appeal shall lie from a decree passed by the Court with the consent of parties.
(3) In a suit cognizable by Courts of Small Causes, no appeal shall lie where the subject-matter amount does not exceed ten thousand rupees, except on a question of law.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
27. A preliminary decree is passed against X. X does not appeal. At the stage of appeal from the final decree, X challenges the correctness of the preliminary decree itself. Which statement is correct under Section 97 CPC?
(A) X may challenge the preliminary decree because final decree revives all issues.
(B) X is precluded from disputing the correctness of the preliminary decree.
(C) X may challenge it only if no execution has commenced.
(D) X may challenge it only by review before the trial court.
28. An appeal is heard by two Judges. They differ, and there is no majority concurring in a judgment varying or reversing the decree appealed from. Subject to the proviso relating to point of law, what is the statutory result under Section 98 CPC?
(A) The appeal must be dismissed for non-prosecution.
(B) The decree appealed from shall be confirmed.
(C) The matter must necessarily be referred to a Full Bench on all questions.
(D) The appeal shall be reheard by the same Bench only.
29. Under Section 99 CPC, no decree shall be reversed or substantially varied in appeal on account of any error, defect or irregularity not affecting merits or jurisdiction. Which defect is expressly excluded from this protection by the proviso?
(A) Misjoinder of causes of action
(B) Non-joinder of a necessary party
(C) Improper valuation of suit for court fee
(D) Irregular service of notice not affecting merits
30. Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding Section 100 CPC?
(A) The memorandum of second appeal must precisely state the substantial question of law involved.
(B) The High Court may hear a second appeal on any question of fact if the first appellate court has reversed the trial court.
(C) The High Court is bound to hear every second appeal without formulating any question.
(D) Substantial question of law is necessary only at final hearing, not at admission.
31. Under Section 100A CPC, where an appeal from an original or appellate decree or order is heard and decided by a Single Judge of a High Court:
(A) A further appeal shall always lie to a Division Bench.
(B) No further appeal shall lie from the judgment, decision or order of such Single Judge.
(C) A further appeal shall lie only if the decree is original.
(D) A further appeal shall lie if the amount exceeds twenty-five thousand rupees.
32. Which statement correctly reflects Section 102 CPC?
(A) No first appeal shall lie in any money suit below twenty-five thousand rupees.
(B) No second appeal shall lie in any suit where subject matter is movable property below twenty-five thousand rupees.
(C) No second appeal shall lie from any decree where the subject matter of the original suit is recovery of money not exceeding twenty-five thousand rupees.
(D) No revision shall lie where the subject matter is recovery of money not exceeding twenty-five thousand rupees.
33. Under Section 103 CPC, the High Court in second appeal may determine an issue of fact where:
(A) The issue was never pleaded by either party.
(B) The evidence on record is sufficient, and the issue was not determined by lower courts or was wrongly determined by reason of a decision on substantial question of law.
(C) The High Court merely prefers another view of oral evidence.
(D) The appellant files an affidavit requesting factual reconsideration.
34. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Section 115 CPC?
(A) Revision may be exercised where a subordinate court has exercised jurisdiction not vested in it by law.
(B) Revision may be exercised where a subordinate court has failed to exercise jurisdiction so vested.
(C) Revision may be exercised where an appeal lies to the High Court but the party prefers revision.
(D) Revision may be exercised where the subordinate court has acted illegally or with material irregularity in exercise of jurisdiction.
35. A subordinate court passes an interlocutory order. The aggrieved party files revision. Under the proviso to Section 115 CPC, the High Court shall not vary or reverse such order unless:
(A) The order causes inconvenience to the revision applicant.
(B) The order, if made in favour of the revision applicant, would have finally disposed of the suit or other proceeding.
(C) The order relates to costs only.
(D) The order is passed after recording evidence.
ANSWER KEY
1. C – Section 100 includes intention to cause death, intention to cause likely fatal injury, or knowledge of likely death.
2. B – The illustration to Section 100 fixes culpable homicide on A though B may be guilty of no offence.
3. C – Section 101 makes it murder where intended bodily injury is sufficient in ordinary course of nature to cause death.
4. C – Provocation by lawful exercise of public servant’s powers does not protect under Exception 1.
5. C – Section 103(2) prescribes death or life imprisonment and fine for each member.
6. B – Knowledge-based culpable homicide not amounting to murder may extend to ten years and fine.
7. D – All three statements correctly reproduce Section 106.
8. D – Hurt under Section 114 includes bodily pain, disease or infirmity.
9. C – All four are included in grievous hurt under Section 116.
10. D – Section 118 includes weapons, fire/heated substance, poison/corrosive substance and animals.
11. A – Section 120 expressly covers hurt to extort confession or information leading to detection of offence.
12. D – Grievous hurt on grave and sudden provocation may extend to five years.
13. B – Section 124(1) prescribes minimum ten years, extendable to life, with fine.
14. B – Section 137 recognises kidnapping from India and kidnapping from lawful guardianship.
15. D – Victim consent is immaterial in trafficking; Section 144 covers exploitation; Section 146 covers unlawful compulsory labour.
16. A – Bhakra Nangal is on the Sutlej river.
17. A – At Devprayag, Alaknanda and Bhagirathi meet to form the Ganga.
18. A – Chambal is a major tributary of the Yamuna.
19. A – Hirakud Dam is built across the Mahanadi.
20. A – Sardar Sarovar Project is on the Narmada river.
21. A – The Yamuna forms Haryana’s eastern boundary with Uttar Pradesh in several stretches.
22. A – The Ghaggar system flows through northern and western parts of Haryana.
23. A – Haryana has a tropical monsoon climate with very hot summers and cool winters.
24. A – Alluvial soils dominate the plains of Haryana.
25. A – Markanda is generally treated as part of the Ghaggar river system.
26. D – Section 96 covers ex parte decrees, consent decrees and Small Cause value restriction.
27. B – Section 97 bars later challenge to an unappealed preliminary decree.
28. B – Section 98 confirms the decree where no majority exists to vary or reverse it.
29. B – Proviso to Section 99 excludes non-joinder of necessary party.
30. A – Section 100 requires precise statement and formulation of substantial question of law.
31. B – Section 100A bars further appeal from the judgment, decision or order of a Single Judge in covered appeals.
32. C – Section 102 bars second appeal in recovery-money suits up to Rs. 25,000.
33. B – Section 103 permits factual determination only in the stated limited situations.
34. C – Revision lies only where no appeal lies to High Court.
35. B – Section 115 proviso restricts interference unless favourable order would finally dispose of proceeding.