1. Under Section 147 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, whoever wages war against the Government of India, attempts to wage such war, or abets the waging of such war shall be punished with-
(A) imprisonment up to seven years and fine
(B) imprisonment up to ten years and fine
(C) death or imprisonment for life and fine
(D) simple imprisonment only
2. Under Section 148, conspiracy to commit offences punishable by Section 147 is complete-
(A) only when war is actually waged
(B) only when arms are collected
(C) only when an illegal omission takes place in pursuance of the conspiracy
(D) even though no act or illegal omission takes place in pursuance of the conspiracy
3. Under Section 149, which of the following acts is punishable when done with the intention of waging or being prepared to wage war against the Government of India?
(1) Collecting men
(2) Collecting arms
(3) Collecting ammunition
(4) Otherwise preparing to wage war
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 2 only
4. Under Section 152, which of the following may constitute an act endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India?
(1) Exciting or attempting to excite secession
(2) Exciting or attempting to excite armed rebellion
(3) Encouraging feelings of separatist activities
(4) Endangering sovereignty or unity and integrity of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
5. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List I
A. Section 153
B. Section 154
C. Section 155
D. Section 158
List II
(1) Aiding escape of, rescuing or harbouring State prisoner or prisoner of war
(2) Receiving property taken by war or depredation
(3) Waging war against Government of any foreign State at peace with Government of India
(4) Committing depredation on territories of foreign State at peace with Government of India
(A) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(B) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(C) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(D) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
6. Under Section 169, “electoral right” means the right of a person-
(1) to stand as a candidate
(2) not to stand as a candidate
(3) to withdraw from being a candidate
(4) to vote or refrain from voting at an election
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
7. Under Section 170, which of the following is expressly NOT an offence of bribery?
(A) Giving gratification to induce exercise of electoral right
(B) Accepting gratification as a reward for exercising electoral right
(C) Declaration of public policy or promise of public action
(D) Attempting to procure gratification as reward for inducing electoral right
8. Under Section 171, which of the following is deemed to interfere with the free exercise of electoral right?
(1) Threatening a candidate or voter with injury
(2) Inducing a candidate or voter to believe that he will become an object of Divine displeasure
(3) Mere exercise of a legal right without intent to interfere with electoral right
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
9. Under Section 172, personation at an election includes-
(A) voting as authorised proxy for an elector under law
(B) applying for a voting paper in the name of a dead person
(C) making a declaration of public policy
(D) failing to keep election accounts
10. Under Sections 173 to 177, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Bribery by treating is punishable with imprisonment only.
(B) False statement relating to personal character or conduct of a candidate with intent to affect election result is punishable with fine.
(C) Failure to keep election accounts is punishable with death.
(D) Illegal election payment without candidate authority is never punishable if later orally approved.
11. Under Section 189, an assembly of five or more persons is designated an unlawful assembly if the common object is-
(1) to overawe the Central Government or State Government by criminal force
(2) to resist the execution of any law or legal process
(3) to commit mischief, criminal trespass or other offence
(4) by criminal force, to compel any person to do what he is not legally bound to do
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
12. Under Section 190, if an offence is committed by any member of an unlawful assembly in prosecution of the common object of that assembly, who is guilty of that offence?
(A) Only the person who physically committed the act
(B) Every person who, at the time of committing that offence, was a member of the same assembly
(C) Only the person who formed the assembly
(D) Only persons armed with deadly weapons
13. Under Section 191, rioting is committed when-
(A) two persons fight privately inside a house without disturbing public peace
(B) force or violence is used by an unlawful assembly or by any member thereof in prosecution of the common object
(C) one person refuses to vote at an election
(D) a person merely possesses a counterfeit note
14. Under Section 194, when two or more persons, by fighting in a public place, disturb the public peace, they are said to commit-
(A) affray
(B) personation
(C) depredation
(D) bribery
15. Consider the following statements under Sections 195, 196 and 197 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:
(1) Assaulting or obstructing a public servant while he is endeavouring to disperse an unlawful assembly is punishable under Section 195.
(2) Promoting enmity between groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, caste or community is covered under Section 196.
(3) Imputations that a class of persons cannot bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India by reason of group identity are covered under Section 197.
(4) False or misleading information jeopardising sovereignty, unity and integrity or security of India is covered under Section 197.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
16. Who founded the Mauryan Empire after overthrowing the Nanda dynasty?
(A) Ashoka
(B) Bindusara
(C) Chandragupta Maurya
(D) Samudragupta
17. Kautilya, also known as Chanakya, is traditionally associated with which text?
(A) Indica
(B) Arthashastra
(C) Mudrarakshasa
(D) Rajatarangini
18. The Kalinga War was a turning point in the life of which Mauryan ruler?
(A) Chandragupta Maurya
(B) Bindusara
(C) Ashoka
(D) Dasharatha
19. Megasthenes visited the court of which Indian ruler?
(A) Chandragupta Maurya
(B) Ashoka
(C) Chandragupta II
(D) Harshavardhana
20. Ashoka’s policy of Dhamma mainly aimed at:
(A) Military conquest only
(B) Religious tolerance, morality and welfare
(C) Abolition of monarchy
(D) Expansion of Brahmanical rituals
21. In 2026, the Supreme Court recognised trauma care as part of which constitutional right?
(A) Article 14 – Equality before law
(B) Article 19 – Freedom of speech
(C) Article 21 – Right to life
(D) Article 32 – Constitutional remedies
22. In 2026, the Supreme Court rejected a challenge to Section 63(4) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which is related to:
(A) Mandatory confession before police
(B) Hash value disclosure for electronic evidence
(C) Abolition of expert evidence
(D) Oral evidence in civil cases only
23. In May 2026, the Supreme Court declared bail conditions such as making an accused clean a police station as:
(A) Mandatory community service
(B) Valid reformative punishment
(C) Abhorrent, degrading and unknown to law
(D) A necessary condition in all petty offences
24. The Supreme Court’s continuing directions regarding Bar Associations require women lawyers’ representation to the extent of:
(A) 10%
(B) 20%
(C) 30%
(D) 50%
25. In the 2026 suo motu matter arising from an Allahabad High Court order in a sexual offence case, the Supreme Court primarily dealt with the distinction between:
(A) Theft and extortion
(B) Preparation and attempt
(C) Bail and parole
(D) Civil wrong and tort
26. Under Section 11, which person is competent to contract?
(A) A person of majority age, sound mind and not disqualified by law
(B) A person of majority age but declared disqualified by law
(C) A minor with adequate consideration
(D) A person of unsound mind acting through a friend
27. A person is generally of unsound mind but enters into an agreement during a lucid interval. Under Section 12:
(A) He can never contract because general unsoundness is enough.
(B) He may contract when he is of sound mind.
(C) He may contract only if the agreement is registered.
(D) He may contract only if the other party had no notice.
28. A person generally of sound mind enters into a contract while so intoxicated that he cannot understand its terms or form rational judgment. Under Section 12:
(A) He is competent because he is generally of sound mind.
(B) He is not competent while in that condition.
(C) He is competent if consideration is adequate.
(D) He is competent if contract is in writing.
29. For the purpose of Section 12, soundness of mind is tested with reference to:
(A) Permanent medical condition only
(B) Capacity at the time of making the contract to understand it and form rational judgment as to its effect upon interests
(C) Literacy and ability to sign
(D) Capacity to pay damages
30. Necessaries suited to the condition in life of a person incapable of contracting are supplied to him. Under Section 68, reimbursement is recoverable from:
(A) The person personally by treating him as competent
(B) His property
(C) The supplier only
(D) The guardian personally in every case
31. Necessaries are supplied to the wife of a person incapable of contracting, whom he is legally bound to support. Under Section 68:
(A) No claim lies because necessaries were not supplied directly to him.
(B) Reimbursement may be claimed from the property of the incapable person.
(C) The wife becomes personally liable under Section 68.
(D) The agreement becomes valid under Section 25.
32. Which of the following is NOT part of competence under Section 11?
(A) Attainment of majority according to applicable law
(B) Soundness of mind
(C) Not being disqualified by law
(D) Adequacy of consideration
33. Consider the following statements:
(1) A person who is usually of unsound mind may contract when he is of sound mind.
(2) A person who is usually of sound mind may not contract when he is of unsound mind.
(3) Soundness of mind is irrelevant if the contract is beneficial.
Which are correct under Section 12?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
34. A minor receives luxury articles not suited to his condition in life. The supplier claims reimbursement under Section 68 as “necessaries”. Which statement is safest?
(A) All supplies to minors are necessaries.
(B) Section 68 applies only to necessaries suited to the condition in life.
(C) Section 68 makes every minor personally liable.
(D) Section 68 validates every minor’s agreement.
35. Which statement is correct under Sections 10 and 11?
(A) An agreement by a person incompetent to contract cannot become a contract merely because the object and consideration are lawful.
(B) A minor’s agreement becomes a contract if in writing.
(C) Soundness of mind is relevant only in criminal law.
(D) Legal disqualification is irrelevant if parties consent.
ANSWER KEY
1. C – Section 147 prescribes death or imprisonment for life and fine.
2. D – Explanation to Section 148 says no act or illegal omission is necessary for conspiracy.
3. A – Section 149 covers collecting men, arms, ammunition or otherwise preparing for war.
4. D – Section 152 covers secession, armed rebellion, separatist activities and endangering sovereignty or unity and integrity.
5. A – Sections 153, 154, 155 and 158 respectively deal with foreign State war, depredation, receiving property and aiding escape.
6. D – Electoral right includes standing, not standing, withdrawal, voting and refraining from voting.
7. C – Declaration of public policy or promise of public action is expressly excluded from bribery.
8. A – Threat and Divine displeasure are deemed interference; mere legal right without intent is excluded.
9. B – Applying for voting paper in the name of a dead person is personation at election.
10. B – Section 175 punishes false factual statements on candidate’s personal character or conduct with fine.
11. D – All four are common objects that may make an assembly unlawful under Section 189.
12. B – Section 190 fixes guilt on every member present at the time if offence is in prosecution of common object.
13. B – Rioting requires force or violence by unlawful assembly or member in prosecution of common object.
14. A – Fighting by two or more persons in a public place disturbing public peace is affray.
15. D – All four statements correctly state Sections 195, 196 and 197.
16. C – Chandragupta Maurya – He founded the Mauryan Empire after defeating the Nandas.
17. B – Arthashastra – Kautilya is traditionally credited with the Arthashastra.
18. C – Ashoka – The Kalinga War deeply influenced Ashoka’s policy of Dhamma.
19. A – Chandragupta Maurya – Megasthenes visited Chandragupta Maurya’s court.
20. B – Religious tolerance, morality and welfare – Ashoka’s Dhamma promoted ethical and welfare-oriented rule.
21. C – Article 21 – Right to life – SaveLIFE Foundation was reported as recognising trauma care as part of the right to life.
22. B – Hash value disclosure for electronic evidence – The Supreme Court rejected the challenge to Section 63(4) BSA on hash value disclosure.
23. C – Abhorrent, degrading and unknown to law – The Court declared such bail conditions null and void.
24. C – 30% – The Supreme Court’s continuing directions require 30% women representation in Bar Associations.
25. B – Preparation and attempt – The Court restored the summons order and held that the case involved the attempt/preparation distinction.
26. A – Section 11 requires majority, sound mind and no disqualification.
27. B – Section 12 allows contracting during sound interval.
28. B – A usually sound person cannot contract while incapable of understanding/rational judgment.
29. B – Section 12 tests capacity at the time of contract.
30. B – Section 68 allows reimbursement from property, not personal contractual liability.
31. B – Section 68 covers necessaries supplied to persons legally supported by incapable person.
32. D – Adequacy of consideration is not a competence requirement under Section 11.
33. A – Statements 1 and 2 match Section 12; statement 3 is false.
34. B – Section 68 is limited to necessaries suited to condition in life.
35. A – Competence is essential under Sections 10 and 11.