1. Under Section 173(1), information relating to commission of a cognizable offence may be given to the officer in charge of a police station-
(A) only orally and only within territorial jurisdiction
(B) orally or by electronic communication, irrespective of the area where the offence is committed
(C) only in writing before a Magistrate
(D) only after preliminary inquiry by police
2. Under Section 173(1), if information relating to commission of a cognizable offence is given by electronic communication, it shall be taken on record on being signed by the person giving it within-
(A) twenty-four hours
(B) three days
(C) seven days
(D) fifteen days
3. Under Section 173(2), a copy of the information recorded under Section 173(1) shall be given forthwith, free of cost, to-
(A) only the accused
(B) only the Magistrate
(C) the informant or the victim
(D) the District Magistrate only
4. Under Section 173(3), preliminary inquiry may be conducted for cognizable offences punishable for three years or more but less than seven years with prior permission from an officer not below the rank of-
(A) Sub-Inspector of Police
(B) Inspector of Police
(C) Deputy Superintendent of Police
(D) Executive Magistrate
5. Under Section 173(4), where the officer in charge of a police station refuses to record information relating to a cognizable offence, the aggrieved person may send the substance of such information in writing and by post to-
(A) the Superintendent of Police concerned
(B) the Sessions Judge directly
(C) the complainant’s advocate only
(D) the District Legal Services Authority only
6. Under Section 174, no police officer shall investigate a non-cognizable case without-
(A) sanction of State Government
(B) order of a Magistrate having power to try such case or commit the case for trial
(C) written consent of the accused
(D) permission of the informant
7. Under Section 174(4), where a case relates to two or more offences, of which at least one is cognizable, the case shall be deemed to be-
(A) non-cognizable
(B) bailable
(C) cognizable
(D) compoundable
8. Under Section 175(1), any officer in charge of a police station may investigate any cognizable case-
(A) only after order of the Magistrate
(B) only after permission of the accused
(C) without the order of a Magistrate
(D) only after filing of chargesheet
9. Under Section 176, in relation to an offence of rape, the recording of statement of the victim shall be conducted-
(A) only in the police station and only by a male police officer
(B) at the residence of the victim or place of her choice and, as far as practicable, by a woman police officer
(C) only before the Sessions Court
(D) only after completion of investigation
10. Under Section 179, which of the following persons shall not be required to attend at any place other than the place in which such person resides?
(1) Male person under fifteen years of age
(2) Male person above sixty years of age
(3) Woman
(4) Mentally or physically disabled person or person with acute illness
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
11. Under Section 180, a person examined by police shall be bound to answer truly all questions relating to the case, except questions whose answers would have a tendency to expose him to-
(A) public criticism only
(B) civil inconvenience only
(C) a criminal charge, penalty or forfeiture
(D) departmental enquiry only
12. Under Section 181, a statement made by any person to a police officer in the course of investigation, if reduced to writing-
(A) shall be signed by the person making it
(B) shall not be signed by the person making it
(C) must be registered before the Sub-Registrar
(D) is automatically substantive evidence in all trials
13. Under Section 183, before recording a confession, the Magistrate shall explain to the person making it that-
(1) he is not bound to make a confession
(2) if he makes a confession, it may be used as evidence against him
(3) confession may be recorded only if the Magistrate has reason to believe it is being made voluntarily
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
14. Under Section 187, when investigation cannot be completed within twenty-four hours and grounds exist for believing the accusation is well-founded, the officer in charge or investigating officer not below the rank of sub-inspector shall forward the accused and diary entries to-
(A) the nearest Magistrate
(B) the Superintendent of Police only
(C) the complainant
(D) the District Collector only
15. Consider the following statements under Sections 192 and 193 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023:
(1) Every police officer making an investigation shall day by day enter proceedings in investigation in a diary.
(2) Statements of witnesses recorded during investigation under Section 180 shall be inserted in the case diary.
(3) Every investigation under Chapter XIII shall be completed without unnecessary delay.
(4) The police report on completion of investigation may be forwarded to the Magistrate including through electronic communication.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
16. Fundamental Rights are primarily contained in which Part of the Constitution of India?
(A) Part II
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part IVA
17. Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in:
(A) Part III
(B) Part IV
(C) Part IVA
(D) Part V
18. Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by which Amendment Act?
(A) 24th Amendment Act
(B) 42nd Amendment Act
(C) 44th Amendment Act
(D) 61st Amendment Act
19. Which Article guarantees protection of life and personal liberty?
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 21
(D) Article 25
20. Which of the following is a Fundamental Duty?
(A) To pay equal wages
(B) To protect and improve the natural environment
(C) To provide free legal aid
(D) To organize village panchayats
21. A person walks 5 km north, turns right and walks 3 km, then turns right again and walks 5 km. How far is he from the starting point?
(A) 3 km
(B) 5 km
(C) 8 km
(D) 13 km
22. Ravi faces east. He turns left, then right, then right again. Which direction is he facing now?
(A) North
(B) South
(C) East
(D) West
23. A man walks 4 km south, then 6 km east, then 4 km north. In which direction is he from the starting point?
(A) North
(B) South
(C) East
(D) West
24. Priya walks 10 m west, turns right and walks 5 m, then turns right and walks 10 m. How far is she from the starting point?
(A) 5 m
(B) 10 m
(C) 15 m
(D) 25 m
25. If South-East becomes North, then North-West becomes:
(A) South
(B) East
(C) West
(D) North-East
26. Under Section 13, consent requires that parties agree:
(A) To the same thing in the same sense
(B) To the same price only
(C) In writing only
(D) Before witnesses only
27. Which of the following does NOT prevent consent from being free under Section 14?
(A) Coercion
(B) Undue influence
(C) Fraud
(D) Mere inadequacy of consideration by itself
28. Under Section 15, coercion includes unlawful detaining or threatening to detain property with the intention of:
(A) Causing any person to enter into an agreement
(B) Causing only the owner to sign a registered document
(C) Causing a court to pass decree
(D) Causing breach of public peace only
29. For undue influence under Section 16, which of the following relationships is specifically relevant?
(A) One party is in a position to dominate the will of another and uses that position to obtain unfair advantage.
(B) One party merely has better bargaining skill.
(C) One party is richer, without more.
(D) One party is a stranger to the other party.
30. A person is deemed to be in a position to dominate the will of another under Section 16 where he:
(1) Holds real or apparent authority over the other.
(2) Stands in a fiduciary relation to the other.
(3) Makes a contract with a person whose mental capacity is temporarily or permanently affected by age, illness, or mental or bodily distress.
Which are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
31. Under Section 17, which is fraud?
(A) A positive assertion made honestly and warranted by information
(B) Active concealment of a fact by one having knowledge or belief of the fact
(C) Mere silence in all circumstances
(D) Innocent mistake of fact by both parties
32. Which statement is correct regarding silence under Section 17?
(A) Silence is fraud in every contract.
(B) Silence is never fraud under any circumstance.
(C) Silence may be fraud where there is a duty to speak or where silence is equivalent to speech.
(D) Silence is fraud only if the contract is registered.
33. Which of the following falls under misrepresentation under Section 18 and not fraud under Section 17?
(A) Promise made without intention of performing it
(B) Active concealment of a known fact
(C) Positive assertion not warranted by information, though believed to be true
(D) Act fitted to deceive
34. Under Section 19, a contract caused by fraud is not voidable if:
(A) The fraud did not cause the consent to the agreement.
(B) The party defrauded is poor.
(C) The contract is oral.
(D) Consideration is inadequate.
35. Which statement correctly combines Sections 20, 21 and 22?
(A) Bilateral mistake of fact essential to agreement makes the agreement void; mistake of Indian law does not make it void; unilateral mistake of fact does not make it void.
(B) Every mistake of law makes agreement void.
(C) Every unilateral mistake of fact makes contract void.
(D) Mistake as to value is always mistake as to essential fact.
ANSWER KEY
1. B – Section 173 permits oral or electronic information irrespective of area of offence.
2. B – Electronic information must be signed within three days.
3. C – A free copy must be given to the informant or victim.
4. C – Prior permission must be from an officer not below Deputy Superintendent of Police.
5. A – Refusal to record cognizable information may be escalated to the Superintendent of Police concerned.
6. B – Non-cognizable investigation requires order of a competent Magistrate.
7. C – If at least one offence is cognizable, the case is deemed cognizable.
8. C – Section 175 permits investigation of cognizable cases without Magistrate’s order.
9. B – Rape victim statement is to be recorded at residence/place of choice and as far as practicable by a woman police officer.
10. D – All four protected categories cannot be required to attend outside their residence.
11. C – The exception covers answers tending to expose the person to criminal charge, penalty or forfeiture.
12. B – Police statements reduced to writing under investigation shall not be signed by the maker.
13. D – All three safeguards are mandatory before recording confession.
14. A – Section 187 requires forwarding the accused and diary entries to the nearest Magistrate.
15. D – Sections 192 and 193 support all four statements on case diary and police report.
16. B – Part III – Fundamental Rights are contained in Part III of the Constitution.
17. B – Part IV – DPSPs are contained in Part IV.
18. B – 42nd Amendment Act – Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
19. C – Article 21 – Article 21 protects life and personal liberty.
20. B – To protect and improve the natural environment – This is a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A.
21. A – 3 km – North and south movements cancel, leaving 3 km east.
22. B – South – East -> left North -> right East -> right South.
23. C – East – South and north cancel, leaving 6 km east.
24. A – 5 m – West and east movements cancel, leaving 5 m north.
25. A – South – Direction system rotates so South-East maps to North; North-West maps to South.
26. A – Section 13 requires consensus ad idem.
27. D – Mere inadequacy alone is not listed in Section 14.
28. A – Section 15 requires intention to cause any person to enter into an agreement.
29. A – Section 16 requires dominance of will and unfair advantage.
30. D – All three are covered by Section 16.
31. B – Active concealment by one knowing or believing fact is fraud.
32. C – Explanation to Section 17 qualifies when silence becomes fraud.
33. C – Innocent positive assertion without warrant is misrepresentation.
34. A – Fraud not causing consent does not make contract voidable.
35. A – Sections 20, 21 and 22 draw this exact distinction.