1. A revenue officer, being legally bound to execute a decree by attaching certain movable property, deliberately avoids attachment despite knowing that such disobedience is likely to defeat the decree-holder’s lawful claim. Which provision and punishment are most appropriate?
(A) BNS S. 198 — simple imprisonment up to one year, or fine, or both
(B) BNS S. 199 — rigorous imprisonment not less than six months and up to two years with fine
(C) BNS S. 201 — imprisonment of either description up to three years, or fine, or both
(D) BNS S. 207 — simple imprisonment up to six months, or fine up to ten thousand rupees, or both
2. A police officer refuses to record information given under BNSS S. 173(1) in relation to a cognizable offence punishable under one of the BNS sections specifically listed in BNS S. 199(c). Which statement is correct?
(A) The act falls under BNS S. 198 and is punishable only with simple imprisonment up to one year
(B) The act falls under BNS S. 199 and carries rigorous imprisonment of not less than six months but which may extend to two years, and fine
(C) The act is only a departmental wrong and no offence is made out unless actual injury is proved
(D) The act falls under BNS S. 201 because every refusal to record information amounts to preparing an incorrect document
3. The person in charge of a private hospital refuses emergency treatment to a victim despite the legal obligation contemplated under BNSS S. 397. Which of the following is the most accurate position under BNS S. 200?
(A) Only Government hospitals are covered, and private hospitals are excluded
(B) Only doctors personally treating the victim are covered, not the person in charge of hospital administration
(C) Public and private hospitals may be covered, and punishment may extend to one year, or fine, or both
(D) The offence is punishable only if the victim dies as a direct result of refusal of treatment
4. A public servant, charged with translating an official electronic record, knowingly translates it incorrectly with intent to cause injury to one party in a pending proceeding. Which provision is attracted?
(A) BNS S. 198, because every official disobedience causing injury is covered only by that section
(B) BNS S. 201, because the public servant knowingly prepared or translated a document or electronic record incorrectly with intent to cause injury
(C) BNS S. 204, because wrong translation is treated as personation of public servant
(D) BNS S. 207, because incorrect translation prevents publication of a lawful order
5. Consider the following statements regarding BNS S. 202 and S. 203:
1. A public servant legally bound not to engage in trade commits an offence if he engages in trade.
2. A public servant legally bound not to purchase certain property may still purchase it jointly with others if his own name is not used.
3. In a case covered by BNS S. 203, the property purchased, if any, is liable to confiscation.
4. BNS S. 202 expressly includes community service as one of the possible punishments.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
6. X pretends to be a Food Safety Officer and, under colour of that assumed office, attempts to inspect the storage room of a shopkeeper. He does not merely wear a badge but actually acts in the assumed official capacity. Which is the best legal classification?
(A) Wearing garb or carrying token used by public servant under BNS S. 205
(B) Personating a public servant under BNS S. 204
(C) Public servant unlawfully engaging in trade under BNS S. 202
(D) Preventing service of summons under BNS S. 207
7. A person who does not belong to any police force wears a uniform closely resembling that of police personnel with the intention that people should believe he is a police officer. He does not actually exercise any police power. Which statement is correct?
(A) He may be punished under BNS S. 205 with imprisonment up to three months, or fine up to five thousand rupees, or both
(B) He must be punished under BNS S. 204 with minimum six months’ imprisonment because wearing uniform always amounts to personation
(C) No offence is made out unless he arrests or threatens someone
(D) Only departmental disciplinary action is possible, as no public servant is directly injured
8. A witness intentionally absconds to avoid service of a summons issued by a Court requiring him to appear and produce an electronic record. Which punishment provision most accurately applies?
(A) Simple imprisonment up to one month, or fine up to five thousand rupees, or both
(B) Simple imprisonment up to six months, or fine up to ten thousand rupees, or both
(C) Rigorous imprisonment not less than six months and up to two years with fine
(D) Imprisonment of either description up to three years, or fine, or both
9. A person intentionally removes a summons lawfully affixed to the door of another person, where the summons required that person to attend Court in person. Which statement is most accurate under BNS S. 207?
(A) The offence is not made out because the summons was not served on the accused himself
(B) The offence is made out only if the person whose summons was removed was ultimately acquitted
(C) The aggravated punishment relating to Court attendance may apply
(D) The act is punishable only as contempt of Court and not under BNS
10. An offence is committed partly in District A, partly in District B, and its final consequence occurs in District C. There is no specific contrary law. Under BNSS S. 197–199, which Court may inquire into or try the offence?
(A) Only the Court of District A, because the first act occurred there
(B) Only the Court of District C, because consequence is decisive in all cases
(C) A Court having jurisdiction over any local area where part of the offence was committed or where the consequence ensued, depending on the facts
(D) Only the High Court, because ordinary territorial jurisdiction becomes inapplicable
11. A person cheats another by electronic communication sent from Delhi, received in Gurugram, and the property is delivered in Faridabad to the accused person. Under BNSS S. 202, which Court may have jurisdiction?
(A) Only the Court where the accused physically typed the message
(B) Only the Court where the deceived person originally resided
(C) The Court where the electronic communication was sent or received, and also where the property was delivered or received, as applicable
(D) Only the Court where the bank account of the accused is maintained
12. A Magistrate of the first class finds that a person within his local jurisdiction has committed an offence outside that local jurisdiction but within India. The offence is triable in India, is not punishable with death or imprisonment for life, and the person is ready to furnish bail. Which statement is correct under BNSS S. 207?
(A) The Magistrate has no power even to inquire because the offence was committed outside his jurisdiction
(B) The Magistrate may inquire as if the offence had been committed within his local jurisdiction and may take a bond or bail bond for appearance before the proper Magistrate
(C) The Magistrate must directly try the case to conclusion to avoid delay
(D) The Magistrate can proceed only after previous sanction of the Central Government in every such case
13. An Indian citizen commits an offence on the high seas outside India. He is later found in Mumbai. Under BNSS S. 208, which statement is most accurate?
(A) He cannot be dealt with in India because the offence was outside Indian territory
(B) He may be dealt with as if the offence had been committed at any place in India where he is found or where the offence is registered in India, but inquiry or trial requires previous sanction of the Central Government
(C) He may be tried by any Sessions Court without any sanction because citizenship alone is enough
(D) He may be tried only if the foreign country first records evidence through a diplomatic representative
14. Consider the following regarding cognizance by Magistrates under BNSS S. 210:
1. A Magistrate of the first class may take cognizance subject to the provisions of Chapter XV.
2. A Magistrate of the second class may take cognizance if specially empowered by the Chief Judicial Magistrate.
3. Cognizance may be taken upon a complaint of facts, including complaint by a person authorised under a special law.
4. Cognizance may be taken upon a police report submitted in electronic mode.
Which of the above are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
15. A document required by law to be attested is produced in Court. One attesting witness is alive, subject to the process of Court, and capable of giving evidence. Its execution is specifically denied. Which statement is most accurate under BSA S. 67?
(A) The document cannot be used as evidence until at least one attesting witness has been called to prove execution
(B) The document may always be proved by mere comparison of handwriting under BSA S. 72 without calling any attesting witness
(C) Registration alone is sufficient even in case of a will or where execution is specifically denied
(D) Admission by a stranger to the document is sufficient proof of execution
16. A agrees to pay B ₹5,00,000 if a Government notification cancelling C’s mining licence is issued within six months. The cancellation of C’s licence is neither part of A’s promise nor B’s promise, but is an uncertain external event. Which statement is most accurate?
(A) It is not a contingent contract because the event is connected with a Government act
(B) It is a contingent contract because the liability depends on an uncertain event collateral to the contract
(C) It is a wagering agreement in every case merely because the parties are waiting for an uncertain event
(D) It is void from inception because all contracts depending on uncertain events are void
17. A agrees to sell his horse to B for ₹2,00,000 if C, to whom the horse was first offered, refuses to buy it. Before C gives any refusal, B sues A for specific performance. What is the correct position?
(A) B can enforce immediately because A has already agreed on price
(B) B can enforce only if C actually refuses to buy the horse
(C) B can enforce if B proves he is financially ready and willing
(D) B can enforce because refusal by C is presumed after reasonable time in all cases
18. A promises to pay B ₹10,00,000 when B marries C. Before any marriage, C dies. Which statement is correct?
(A) The contract becomes void because the uncertain future event has become impossible
(B) The contract is enforceable against A’s legal representatives after C’s death
(C) B can enforce the contract if he proves that he was always willing to marry C
(D) The contract is void only if both A and B knew at the time of contract that C would die
19. A agrees to pay B ₹50,000 if a particular ship does not return. The ship is missing for several months but there is no reliable proof that it has sunk or that its return has become impossible. Under S. 33, when can B enforce?
(A) Immediately after the first delay beyond the ordinary voyage period
(B) Only when the happening of the event, namely return of the ship, becomes impossible
(C) Whenever B reasonably believes that the ship will not return
(D) As soon as A refuses payment, because refusal itself makes the event impossible
20. A agrees to pay B ₹1,00,000 if B marries C. Before any marriage between B and C, C marries D. Which statement is correct under S. 34?
(A) B’s marriage with C is deemed impossible, though D may later die and C may afterwards marry B
(B) The contract remains fully enforceable because marriage with C is still naturally possible
(C) The contract becomes enforceable immediately in favour of B
(D) S. 34 applies only to physical impossibility and never to future conduct of a living person
21. A promises to pay B ₹1,00,000 if a specified ship returns within one year. The ship is burnt before expiry of the year. Which statement is correct?
(A) The contract becomes enforceable because the event has become certain
(B) The contract becomes void because the happening of the specified event within fixed time has become impossible
(C) B can enforce after one year because the time fixed must first expire
(D) A remains bound because destruction of the ship is not attributable to B
22. A promises to pay B ₹1,00,000 if a specified ship does not return within one year. The ship is burnt in the sixth month. Which statement is correct?
(A) B can enforce only after the full one-year period expires
(B) B can enforce before expiry of the year because it has become certain that the ship will not return
(C) The contract becomes void because burning of ship is an impossible event
(D) The contract is converted into an ordinary contract independent of contingency
23. A agrees to pay B ₹10,000 if two straight lines enclose a space. Both parties genuinely believe at the time of agreement that it may be possible. Which statement is correct?
(A) The agreement is enforceable because both parties honestly believed in the event
(B) The agreement is void because it is contingent on an impossible event, whether known or not to the parties
(C) The agreement is voidable only at the option of A
(D) The agreement becomes enforceable if B later proves that he relied upon A’s promise
24. Match List I with List II and choose the correct code:
List I
A. Definition of contingent contract
B. Enforcement when uncertain event happens
C. Enforcement when uncertain event does not happen
D. Impossible event, if based on future conduct of living person
List II
1. S. 33
2. S. 34
3. S. 31
4. S. 32
(A) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(B) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(C) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(D) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
25. Which of the following is the best test to distinguish a contingent contract under S. 31 from a promise where the event is itself the performance promised?
(A) Whether the event is collateral to the contract and the duty depends on its happening or non-happening
(B) Whether the event is beneficial to both parties in equal degree
(C) Whether the event is expressly mentioned in writing
(D) Whether both parties have paid consideration in cash
26. A promises to pay B ₹2,00,000 if C is appointed as Vice-Chancellor within one year. C withdraws his candidature after six months and becomes legally disqualified from holding the post before the year ends. Which statement is most accurate?
(A) B must wait until the full year expires in all circumstances
(B) The contract becomes void before expiry if the specified event becomes impossible before the fixed time
(C) The contract becomes enforceable because C’s withdrawal proves uncertainty
(D) A remains liable because the event depended on conduct of a third person
27. A agrees to pay B ₹1,00,000 if C does not resign from service within one year. C resigns in the seventh month. Which statement is correct?
(A) The contract becomes enforceable immediately after C resigns
(B) B cannot enforce the contract because the specified non-happening condition has failed within the fixed time
(C) The contract is enforceable after one year because only expiry of time matters
(D) The contract remains suspended until A accepts C’s resignation
28. Consider the following statements:
1. A contingent contract depending on happening of an uncertain future event cannot be enforced until that event happens.
2. If the event on which such contract depends becomes impossible, the contract becomes void.
3. A contingent contract depending on non-happening of an uncertain event can be enforced when the happening of that event becomes impossible.
4. Every contingent contract is void because it depends on uncertainty.
Which statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
29. A agrees to pay B ₹3,00,000 if B’s shop is destroyed by fire. The shop is later damaged by flooding, but it is not destroyed by fire. Which statement is most accurate?
(A) B can enforce because any serious damage to the shop is enough
(B) B cannot enforce unless the specified collateral event, namely destruction by fire, occurs
(C) B can enforce because flood is legally equivalent to fire for contingent contracts
(D) The contract becomes enforceable immediately because the shop has suffered damage
30. A promises to pay B ₹1,00,000 if B will marry A’s daughter C. Unknown to both parties, C was dead at the time of the agreement. Which statement is correct?
(A) The agreement is enforceable because impossibility was unknown to both parties
(B) The agreement is void because it is contingent on an impossible event
(C) The agreement is voidable at B’s option only
(D) The agreement becomes enforceable if B proves readiness to marry C
31. Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations:
1. The United Nations currently has 193 Member States.
2. Every UN Member State has one seat in the General Assembly.
3. The Security Council has no permanent members after the admission of the African Union to G20.
4. The UN was founded after the Second World War and its Charter entered into force in 1945.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
32. Which of the following statements regarding WHO is most accurate?
(A) WHO has 194 Member States and its members are grouped according to regional distribution
(B) WHO has 193 Member States because it is identical in membership to the United Nations
(C) WHO is a trade dispute settlement body headquartered in Geneva under the WTO system
(D) WHO is a lending institution whose membership depends on prior membership of IMF
33. With reference to the WTO’s recent membership expansion, consider the following:
1. Comoros became the 165th member of the WTO.
2. Timor-Leste became the 166th member of the WTO.
3. Both accessions took WTO membership to 166.
4. WTO membership remained frozen at 164 after 2024.
Which statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 3 and 4 only
34. Which one of the following correctly distinguishes IMF and World Bank in broad functional terms?
(A) IMF primarily focuses on macroeconomic and financial stability, while World Bank focuses more on long-term development and poverty reduction
(B) IMF primarily builds roads and dams, while World Bank conducts short-term currency surveillance only
(C) IMF membership is conditional on first joining the World Bank, while World Bank membership is independent of IMF
(D) IMF is part of the WTO dispute settlement mechanism, while World Bank is part of the UN Security Council
35. With reference to World Bank Group membership, which statement is most accurate?
(A) IBRD has 189 member countries, and a country must first join the IMF to become a member of the Bank
(B) IBRD has 191 members, exactly equal to IMF membership
(C) World Bank membership is open only to countries that are permanent members of the UN Security Council
(D) World Bank is a regional bank whose membership is limited to Asia and Africa
36. With reference to BRICS expansion, which one of the following statements is most accurate?
(A) Indonesia became a full BRICS member in January 2025, while Malaysia is among the partner countries
(B) Indonesia became only a partner country in 2025 and not a full member
(C) BRICS has never expanded after South Africa joined
(D) Malaysia became a full BRICS member in 2025, while Indonesia remained only an observer
37. Consider the following statements regarding G20:
1. The African Union was admitted as a permanent member during India’s G20 Presidency.
2. The European Union is also represented in G20 as a regional organisation.
3. Admission of the African Union integrated the continental bloc into the G20 framework.
4. G20 is a treaty-based organisation with a permanent judicial court for trade disputes.
Which statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
38. Which one of the following statements regarding the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation is correct?
(A) Belarus became an SCO member in 2024, making it the tenth member State
(B) India and Pakistan are founding members of SCO from 2001
(C) Iran joined SCO after Belarus
(D) SCO has no security-related institutional mechanism and is purely a cultural forum
39. Consider the following statements regarding headquarters or secretariat locations:
1. IMF is headquartered in Washington, D.C.
2. WTO is headquartered in Geneva.
3. WHO is headquartered in Geneva.
4. SCO Secretariat is headquartered in Shanghai.
Which statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
40. Which of the following is NOT a full BRICS member according to the current expanded grouping?
(A) Indonesia
(B) Ethiopia
(C) Malaysia
(D) United Arab Emirates
41. The average marks of 18 candidates in a screening test is 72. If the top three candidates, whose average is 88, are excluded, what will be the average marks of the remaining candidates?
(A) 68.4
(B) 68.8
(C) 69.2
(D) 70.0
42. The average age of a batch is 64 years. Five new persons with an average age of 70 years join the batch, and the new average becomes 65 years. How many persons were originally in the batch?
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 30
(D) 35
43. A batsman has an average of 48 runs after 24 innings. He scores 76 runs in the 25th innings. What must he score in the 26th innings so that his average after 26 innings becomes exactly 50?
(A) 68
(B) 70
(C) 72
(D) 74
44. The average weight of 12 persons increases by 2 kg when one person weighing 45 kg is replaced by a new person. What is the weight of the new person?
(A) 67 kg
(B) 68 kg
(C) 69 kg
(D) 70 kg
45. The average of 11 observations is 42. One observation of value 30 is removed, and two new observations having an average of 48 are added. What will be the new average of the observations?
(A) 42
(B) 43
(C) 44
(D) 45
ANSWER KEY WITH ONE-LINER EXPLANATIONS
1. A — BNS S. 198 covers intentional disobedience of legal direction by a public servant causing or likely to cause injury.
2. B — BNS S. 199 specifically punishes failure to record information under BNSS S. 173(1) for listed cognizable offences.
3. C — BNS S. 200 applies to persons in charge of public or private hospitals who contravene BNSS S. 397.
4. B — BNS S. 201 covers knowingly incorrect preparation or translation of a document or electronic record by a public servant.
5. B — Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct; statement 2 is false because purchase jointly or in another’s name is also covered.
6. B — Acting under colour of an assumed public office amounts to personating a public servant under BNS S. 204.
7. A — Fraudulent use of garb or token of a public servant without acting as such falls under BNS S. 205.
8. B — Absconding to avoid Court summons for attendance or production attracts the higher punishment under BNS S. 206.
9. C — Removing a Court summons requiring attendance may attract the aggravated punishment under BNS S. 207.
10. C — Where an offence is committed in parts or consequence ensues elsewhere, jurisdiction may lie in any such local area.
11. C — In cheating by electronic communication, jurisdiction may arise where the message was sent or received and where property was delivered or received.
12. B — BNSS S. 207 allows inquiry and bond or bail bond for appearance before the proper Magistrate.
13. B — BNSS S. 208 requires previous sanction of the Central Government for inquiry or trial of such outside-India offences.
14. D — All four modes of cognizance mentioned are covered under BNSS S. 210.
15. A — BSA S. 67 requires at least one available attesting witness to be called when execution must be proved.
16. B — A contingent contract depends on an uncertain collateral event under Contract Act S. 31.
17. B — Under S. 32, the contract is enforceable only when the specified event actually happens.
18. A — The contract becomes void because the uncertain future event has become impossible.
19. B — Under S. 33, enforcement arises only when the happening of the event becomes impossible.
20. A — Under S. 34, C’s marriage to D makes B’s marriage with C deemed impossible for this contract.
21. B — Under S. 35, the contract becomes void when the ship’s return within the fixed time becomes impossible.
22. B — The contract becomes enforceable once it becomes certain that the ship will not return within the year.
23. B — Under S. 36, agreements contingent on impossible events are void even if impossibility was unknown.
24. A — S. 31 defines contingent contract, S. 32 covers happening, S. 33 non-happening, and S. 34 future conduct.
25. A — The key test is whether the uncertain event is collateral to the contract.
26. B — The contract becomes void if the specified event becomes impossible before the fixed time.
27. B — B cannot enforce because the condition that C should not resign within one year has failed.
28. B — Statements 1, 2 and 3 correctly state the rules of S. 32 and S. 33; statement 4 is wrong.
29. B — The contract is enforceable only on the specified event, namely destruction by fire.
30. B — A contract contingent on an impossible event is void even if both parties were unaware of the impossibility.
31. B — The UN has 193 members, each has a General Assembly seat, and the Charter entered into force in 1945.
32. A — WHO has 194 Member States and works through regional groupings.
33. B — Comoros became the 165th WTO member and Timor-Leste the 166th, taking membership to 166.
34. A — IMF focuses on macro-financial stability, while the World Bank focuses on development and poverty reduction.
35. A — IBRD has 189 member countries, and IMF membership is required before joining the Bank.
36. A — Indonesia became a full BRICS member in January 2025, while Malaysia is a partner country.
37. B — The African Union became a permanent G20 member during India’s Presidency, and the EU is also represented.
38. A — Belarus became the tenth member State of the SCO in 2024.
39. A — IMF is in Washington, D.C.; WTO and WHO are in Geneva; SCO Secretariat is in Beijing, not Shanghai.
40. C — Malaysia is not a full BRICS member; it is a partner country.
41. B — Total marks are 1296; after removing 264, the remaining average is 1032 ÷ 15 = 68.8.
42. B — Solving (64n + 350) ÷ (n + 5) = 65 gives n = 25.
43. C — Required total is 1300; 1152 + 76 + x = 1300, so x = 72.
44. C — Total increase is 12 × 2 = 24, so new weight is 45 + 24 = 69 kg.
45. C — Original total is 462; after removing 30 and adding 96, the new average is 528 ÷ 12 = 44.