1. X, with previous enmity against traders of Village K, gives information to a police officer that illegal arms are hidden in several shops of that village. X does not name any particular trader, but knows that his information is false and that it is likely to cause search, harassment and annoyance to the traders. Which is the most accurate legal position under BNS?
(A) X is not liable because he did not name any specific person as the target of the false information.
(B) X is liable only if the public servant actually arrests one of the traders on the basis of such information.
(C) X may be liable for giving false information with intent or knowledge that public servant’s lawful power may be used to the injury or annoyance of persons.
(D) X is liable only if the false information is given on oath or affirmation before a public servant.
2. During lawful attachment proceedings, a revenue officer proceeds to take possession of certain movable property. A resists the taking of property. B does not resist attachment but intentionally blocks the public auction. C secretly bids in the auction on behalf of a person legally incapable of purchasing that property. Which matching is correct?
(A) A – BNS S. 219; B – BNS S. 218; C – BNS S. 221
(B) A – BNS S. 221; B – BNS S. 220; C – BNS S. 219
(C) A – BNS S. 220; B – BNS S. 219; C – BNS S. 218
(D) A – BNS S. 218; B – BNS S. 219; C – BNS S. 220
3. Consider the following statements regarding omission to assist a public servant under BNS:
1. The person must be legally bound to render or furnish assistance to the public servant.
2. A higher punishment applies where assistance is demanded for executing court process, preventing an offence, suppressing riot or affray, or apprehending an offender.
3. Mere moral duty to assist, without legal obligation, is sufficient for conviction.
4. The omission must be intentional.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 3 and 4 only
4. A District Magistrate lawfully promulgates an order prohibiting a procession from passing through a communally sensitive lane. P knows about the order but intentionally disobeys it. A clash does not actually occur, but the disobedience creates a real risk of riot or affray. Which is correct under BNS?
(A) No offence is made out unless riot or affray actually takes place.
(B) Offence is made out because knowledge of the order and likelihood of harm are sufficient.
(C) Offence is made out only if P specifically intended to cause riot.
(D) Offence is not made out because a promulgated order cannot restrict movement.
5. R threatens a municipal officer’s son and tells the officer not to seal R’s illegal construction. S threatens a complainant and tells him not to apply to the police for protection against assault. Which statement is correct?
(A) Both R and S fall under the same provision dealing only with obstruction of public servant.
(B) R’s act falls under threat of injury to public servant; S’s act falls under threat to induce a person to refrain from seeking public servant’s protection.
(C) R is liable only if the officer actually refrains from sealing the property; S is not liable unless injury is caused.
(D) Neither R nor S is liable unless the threat is made in writing.
6. A protester attempts to commit suicide outside a government office with the stated object of compelling an officer not to demolish an encroachment under lawful authority. Which is the most accurate position under BNS S. 226?
(A) There is no offence because attempt to commit suicide is never punishable in any circumstance.
(B) The act may attract liability if the attempt is with intent to compel or restrain a public servant from discharging official duty.
(C) Liability arises only if the public servant actually changes his official decision.
(D) Liability arises only if the protester causes hurt to some other person.
7. A written complaint is presented before a Magistrate who is not competent to take cognizance. In another case, an oral complaint is made before such Magistrate. What must the Magistrate do under BNSS S. 224?
(A) Return the written complaint with endorsement for presentation to proper Court, and direct the oral complainant to the proper Court.
(B) Dismiss both complaints for want of jurisdiction without any direction.
(C) Convert both complaints into police reports and forward them to the police station.
(D) Examine both complainants on oath and then decide whether to transfer them.
8. A complaint is filed against an accused who resides outside the territorial jurisdiction of the Magistrate taking cognizance. The Magistrate considers postponement of process under BNSS S. 225. If, instead of conducting inquiry himself, he directs investigation by a non-police person, which statement is correct?
(A) Postponement is always discretionary even when the accused resides beyond jurisdiction.
(B) In a complaint triable exclusively by Court of Session, the Magistrate may direct police investigation under S. 225 without restriction.
(C) The non-police investigator has powers of officer in charge of police station for that investigation, except power to arrest without warrant.
(D) Examination of complainant and witnesses on oath is never relevant before directing investigation.
9. After examining the complainant and witnesses on oath and considering the result of inquiry under BNSS S. 225, the Magistrate finds no sufficient ground for proceeding. Which is correct under BNSS S. 226?
(A) He must issue process because dismissal of complaint is not allowed after oath examination.
(B) He may dismiss the complaint but need not record reasons.
(C) He shall dismiss the complaint and briefly record reasons for doing so.
(D) He must commit the matter to Court of Session for confirmation of dismissal.
10. In a complaint case, the Magistrate takes cognizance and considers issuance of process. Which of the following statements correctly reflects BNSS S. 227?
1. In a summons-case, summons shall be issued for attendance of the accused.
2. In a warrant-case, the Magistrate may issue warrant or, if he thinks fit, summons.
3. Summons or warrants may also be issued through electronic means.
4. No summons or warrant shall be issued until a list of prosecution witnesses is filed.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
11. A Magistrate takes cognizance of an offence punishable only with fine not exceeding ₹5,000 and is of opinion that it may be summarily disposed of. Which statement is correct regarding special summons under BNSS S. 229?
(A) The accused must personally appear in every case and cannot plead guilty by post or messenger.
(B) The special summons may permit plea of guilty in writing and payment of fine, but the fine specified shall not exceed ₹5,000.
(C) Every offence under the Motor Vehicles Act punishable with fine not exceeding ₹5,000 is automatically included.
(D) The Magistrate cannot allow an advocate to plead guilty on behalf of the accused.
12. In a case instituted on police report, the accused appears before the Magistrate on 1 June. The victim is represented by an advocate. Which statement is most accurate under BNSS S. 230?
(A) Copies must be supplied only to the accused and never to the victim.
(B) Copies must be furnished to the accused and the represented victim without delay, and in no case beyond fourteen days from production or appearance of the accused.
(C) Electronic supply of documents is not treated as duly furnished.
(D) Voluminous documents must always be physically copied in full and cannot be given for inspection.
13. A complaint case, not instituted on police report, appears to involve an offence triable exclusively by Court of Session. Which is correct regarding BNSS S. 231 and S. 232?
(A) The Magistrate need not furnish copies in a complaint case because S. 230 applies only to police report cases.
(B) The Magistrate shall furnish copies of relevant statements and documents, and after compliance commit the case to Court of Session.
(C) The Magistrate may try the case himself if the accused waives objection.
(D) Commitment must be completed within thirty days and cannot be extended.
14. A complaint case is pending before a Magistrate. During inquiry, it appears that police investigation is also in progress regarding the same offence. Later, a police report is filed, but it does not relate to any accused in the complaint case. What should the Magistrate do under BNSS S. 233?
(A) Stay the complaint forever because police investigation has commenced.
(B) Treat both matters as police report cases even if the police report relates to no accused in the complaint case.
(C) After calling for police report, proceed with the stayed complaint inquiry or trial if the report does not relate to any complaint-case accused or cognizance is not taken on such report.
(D) Dismiss the complaint automatically on receipt of the police report.
15. Consider the following statements regarding presumptions under BSA S. 83–93:
1. The Court shall presume genuineness of every book purporting to be printed or published under Government authority and containing laws of that country, and every book purporting to contain reports of decisions of Courts of such country.
2. The Court may presume that an electronic message forwarded through the originator’s mail server corresponds with the message fed into his computer, but shall not presume the person by whom it was sent.
3. The Court shall presume due attestation, stamping and execution of a document called for and not produced after notice to produce.
4. In every case of a five-year-old electronic record from proper custody, the Court shall compulsorily presume the electronic signature to be that of the purported signer.
Which statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
16. A contracts to supply machinery to B on 1 July. B had already contracted with C to use that machinery in a profitable exhibition, but B never informed A about this special contract. A delays delivery, and B loses ordinary market difference plus the special exhibition profit. Under S. 73, which is most accurate?
(A) B can recover both market difference and special exhibition profit as all losses after breach are compensable.
(B) B can recover losses naturally arising in ordinary course, but not special profits unknown to A when the contract was made.
(C) B can recover only nominal damages because delayed delivery never permits compensation.
(D) B can recover special profits because A came to know about the exhibition after breach.
17. A carrier is engaged to transport a broken shaft for repair. The mill owner does not inform the carrier that the entire mill will remain closed until the shaft is returned. Due to delay, the mill owner claims loss of all mill profits. Which principle best applies under S. 73?
(A) All profits are recoverable because delay itself proves remoteness is irrelevant.
(B) Loss of mill profits is too remote unless the special circumstances were communicated at the time of contract.
(C) Loss of profits is always recoverable in commercial contracts.
(D) Carrier is liable only for penalty under S. 74.
18. A building contractor commits breach. The owner can get the defect repaired immediately for ₹2 lakh, but deliberately waits six months and then claims ₹8 lakh due to further avoidable deterioration. Under the explanation to S. 73, which statement is correct?
(A) Full ₹8 lakh must be awarded because the breach started with the contractor.
(B) No compensation can be awarded once mitigation was possible.
(C) The means existing to remedy inconvenience must be considered, so avoidable enhanced loss may be denied.
(D) The owner can claim only liquidated damages even if no sum is named in the contract.
19. A contract provides that on every week’s delay in completion, the contractor shall pay ₹50,000, subject to maximum ₹5 lakh. The employer proves delay but exact loss is difficult to calculate. Which is the best statement under S. 74?
(A) The full ₹5 lakh must be awarded automatically once breach is proved.
(B) No amount can be awarded unless exact actual loss is mathematically proved.
(C) Reasonable compensation may be awarded, not exceeding the named amount, even if actual loss is not precisely proved.
(D) The clause is void merely because it names a sum payable on breach.
20. P gives a recognizance binding himself in ₹50,000 to appear before a court on a specified date and defaults. Which statement reflects the exception to S. 74?
(A) P is liable only for nominal damages because no actual loss is proved.
(B) P is liable only if the court proves administrative expenditure of ₹50,000.
(C) P may be liable to pay the whole sum mentioned in the recognizance.
(D) P is not liable because recognizance is never covered by S. 74.
21. Which comparison between S. 73 and S. 74 is most accurate?
(A) S. 73 applies only where a penalty is stipulated; S. 74 applies only where no amount is named.
(B) S. 73 permits remote damages; S. 74 permits punitive damages beyond the named amount.
(C) S. 73 deals with compensation for loss naturally arising or within contemplation; S. 74 deals with named sum or penalty, limiting recovery to reasonable compensation not exceeding the stipulated sum.
(D) S. 73 applies only to tortious liability; S. 74 applies only to bail bonds.
22. In a construction contract, delay causes supervision cost and administrative inconvenience, but exact rupee-wise calculation is difficult. The contract names a weekly sum payable for delay. Which is most accurate under S. 74?
(A) The named sum is unenforceable unless every rupee of loss is strictly proved.
(B) Reasonable compensation may be awarded, subject to the ceiling of the sum named in the contract.
(C) The entire stipulated sum must be granted without considering reasonableness.
(D) No compensation can be granted because exact calculation of loss is difficult.
23. A contract says that if A fails to deliver goods by the fixed date, A shall pay B ₹2 lakh “as agreed damages and not as penalty”. A commits breach, but the Court finds ₹2 lakh excessive in the circumstances. Which is correct under S. 74?
(A) The Court must grant ₹2 lakh because the parties used the words “not as penalty”.
(B) The Court cannot grant any compensation because the amount is excessive.
(C) The Court may grant reasonable compensation, not exceeding ₹2 lakh.
(D) The Court must ignore S. 74 because parties described the sum as agreed damages.
24. Which point of time is relevant for determining whether special loss was within the contemplation of parties under S. 73?
(A) When the contract was made.
(B) When the plaint is filed.
(C) When the decree is passed.
(D) When execution proceedings begin.
25. A agrees to deliver cotton to B on 1 May. Unknown to A, B has agreed to resell it to C at an unusually high price. A breaches. Market price on 1 May is lower than B’s resale price to C. Which is correct under S. 73?
(A) B can recover the ordinary loss flowing from breach, but not the special resale profit unknown to A.
(B) B can recover the entire resale profit because every resale is presumed known.
(C) B cannot recover anything because cotton is a movable good.
(D) B can recover penalty under S. 74 despite no penalty clause.
26. Match List I with List II regarding S. 73 and S. 74 of the Indian Contract Act:
List I
A. Loss arising naturally in usual course
B. Special loss from known circumstances
C. Failure to discharge obligation resembling contract
D. Sum named in contract for breach
List II
1. Covered by second paragraph of S. 73
2. Covered by ordinary damages under S. 73
3. Covered by special-circumstance limb of S. 73
4. Covered by S. 74, subject to reasonable compensation ceiling
Choose the correct code:
(A) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
(B) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(C) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
(D) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
27. Which one of the following losses is least likely to be recoverable under S. 73?
(A) Ordinary market difference caused by non-delivery of goods.
(B) Cost reasonably incurred to reduce the inconvenience caused by breach.
(C) Special profit from a separate resale contract never communicated to the defaulting party when the contract was made.
(D) Loss that naturally arose in the usual course from the breach.
28. A small supply contract worth ₹1 lakh provides that delay of even one day will make the supplier liable to pay ₹25 lakh. Delay occurs for one day, and the buyer proves negligible inconvenience. Which statement is correct under S. 74?
(A) The court must grant ₹25 lakh because parties are bound by every agreed sum.
(B) The court may award only reasonable compensation and cannot exceed the stipulated amount.
(C) No compensation can ever be awarded where a sum is penal.
(D) The buyer can recover ₹25 lakh plus additional S. 73 damages.
29. X lawfully incurs an obligation resembling one created by contract and fails to discharge it. Y is injured by such failure. Which statement reflects the second paragraph of S. 73?
(A) Y is remediless because there is no express contract.
(B) Y may receive the same compensation as if X had contracted to discharge it and had broken that contract.
(C) Y can claim only penalty under S. 74.
(D) Y must prove fraud, otherwise no compensation is possible.
30. Which of the following statements correctly states the limits of S. 74?
1. Breach must be established before compensation under S. 74 can arise.
2. The stipulated amount is the ceiling, not an automatic entitlement.
3. “Whether or not actual damage is proved” does not mean the court must ignore reasonableness.
4. Where the stipulated amount is excessive, the Court may award a lower reasonable amount.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
31. Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding Haryana’s administrative geography?
(A) Haryana has 22 districts, and Charkhi Dadri is included among the districts of the State.
(B) Chandigarh is counted as one of Haryana’s districts because it is the capital.
(C) Bahadurgarh and Kalka are separate districts of Haryana.
(D) Haryana has no district touching the National Capital Region.
32. Consider the following statements about Haryana geography:
1. Morni Hills are associated with Panchkula district.
2. The Yamuna forms an important eastern river boundary of Haryana in several stretches.
3. Kalesar National Park is associated with Yamunanagar district.
4. Chandigarh is a district of Haryana because it functions as the capital.
Which statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
33. Consider the following statements about Haryana’s rivers:
1. Yamuna broadly defines Haryana’s eastern boundary with Uttar Pradesh in several stretches.
2. Ghaggar is associated with the northern and north-western drainage system of Haryana.
3. Markanda and Tangri are associated with Shivalik-fed drainage of the north-eastern region.
4. Yamuna originates from the Aravalli hills within Haryana.
Which statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
34. Which combination correctly describes the broad climatic pattern of Haryana?
(A) Equatorial climate, uniform rainfall throughout the year, and no temperature extremes.
(B) Subtropical/continental monsoon influence, hot summers, cold winters, and relatively drier western/south-western parts.
(C) Coastal humid climate, sea-breeze rainfall, and lateritic soils as the dominant factor.
(D) Permanent snow climate in the northern districts and tropical rainforest climate in southern districts.
35. Which statement regarding soils and physiography of Haryana is most accurate?
(A) The alluvial plains dominate large parts of Haryana, with sandy and relatively arid tracts in western/south-western areas.
(B) Black cotton soil is the dominant soil in every district of Haryana.
(C) Haryana has no alluvial plains because the whole state is part of the Aravalli rocky plateau.
(D) Khadar, Nali and Bet are names of mountain passes in the Shivalik region.
36. Match the important places with their districts/region:
List I
A. Morni Hills
B. Sultanpur National Park
C. Bhindawas Bird Sanctuary
D. Kalesar National Park
List II
1. Jhajjar
2. Panchkula
3. Yamunanagar
4. Gurugram
Choose the correct code:
(A) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(B) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
(C) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(D) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
37. Which of the following groups contains only places that are not districts of Haryana?
(A) Ambala, Nuh, Kaithal, Charkhi Dadri
(B) Panchkula, Panipat, Rewari, Palwal
(C) Hisar, Sirsa, Jind, Jhajjar
(D) Bahadurgarh, Kalka, Hansi, Tohana
38. Match the place/event association correctly:
List I
A. Brahma Sarovar
B. Three Battles
C. Surajkund
D. Pinjore Gardens
List II
1. Panipat
2. Faridabad
3. Panchkula region
4. Kurukshetra
Choose the correct code:
(A) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(B) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
(C) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(D) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
39. In a queue of candidates, M is 18th from the left. N is 22nd from the right. N is to the right of M and exactly 7 candidates stand between M and N. What is the total number of candidates in the queue?
(A) 45
(B) 46
(C) 47
(D) 48
40. In a row, A is 15th from the left and B is 20th from the right. After A and B interchange their positions, A becomes 25th from the left. What is the total number of persons in the row and B’s new rank from the right?
(A) 44 and 30
(B) 43 and 29
(C) 45 and 31
(D) 44 and 29
41. In a merit list, Kavita is 25th from the top and 34th from the bottom among the candidates who qualified. Seven candidates failed and were not included in the merit ranking, while three registered candidates were absent. How many candidates were registered for the paper?
(A) 65
(B) 66
(C) 68
(D) 69
42. In a line, X is 24th from the left. Y is to the right of X, and exactly 15 persons stand between X and Y. Y is 18th from the right. Find the total number of persons in the line.
(A) 55
(B) 56
(C) 57
(D) 58
43. In a queue, R is 11th from the front and S is 17th from the back. After R and S interchange their positions, R becomes 23rd from the front. What are the total number of persons in the queue and S’s new position from the back?
(A) 39 and 29
(B) 40 and 30
(C) 39 and 28
(D) 38 and 29
44. In a class of 40 students standing according to marks, Pankaj is 13th from the top. Seema is 9 ranks below Pankaj. Ritu is 7 ranks above Seema. What is Ritu’s rank from the bottom?
(A) 24th
(B) 25th
(C) 26th
(D) 27th
45. In a list of 60 candidates, Nikita’s rank improves by 4 positions after revaluation. Her new rank is 18th from the top. What was her old rank from the bottom before revaluation?
(A) 37th
(B) 38th
(C) 39th
(D) 40th
ANSWER KEY WITH ONE-LINER EXPLANATIONS
1. C – False information likely to cause public servant’s lawful power to injure or annoy another attracts BNS S. 217.
2. D – Resistance to taking property is BNS S. 218; obstructing sale is S. 219; illegal bid is S. 220.
3. A – Legal duty and intentional omission are required; moral duty alone is insufficient.
4. B – Knowledge of a promulgated order and likelihood of harm are enough; actual riot or affray is not necessary.
5. B – R falls under threat to public servant; S falls under threat to prevent seeking public servant’s protection.
6. B – Attempted suicide to compel or restrain a public servant attracts BNS S. 226.
7. A – Written complaint is returned with endorsement; oral complainant is directed to the proper Court.
8. C – Non-police investigator has police-station powers for that investigation except arrest without warrant.
9. C – Complaint may be dismissed for no sufficient ground, but brief reasons must be recorded.
10. D – All four statements correctly reflect BNSS S. 227 on issue of process.
11. B – Special summons may permit written guilty plea and payment of fine not exceeding ₹5,000.
12. B – Copies must be supplied to accused and represented victim without delay and within fourteen days.
13. B – Copies are furnished in complaint sessions cases before commitment to Sessions Court.
14. C – If police report does not relate to complaint-case accused, complaint proceedings may continue.
15. A – Five-year-old electronic record presumption is discretionary, not compulsory.
16. B – Special profits unknown at contract formation are too remote under S. 73.
17. B – Mill-profit loss is remote unless special circumstances were communicated at contract formation.
18. C – Avoidable enhanced loss may be denied because mitigation is relevant under S. 73.
19. C – Reasonable compensation may be awarded, but not beyond the named amount.
20. C – Recognizance exception may make the whole sum payable.
21. C – S. 73 covers ordinary/special damages; S. 74 covers named sum or penalty.
22. B – Reasonable compensation may be granted subject to the stipulated ceiling.
23. C – Court may award reasonable compensation despite the parties calling it agreed damages.
24. A – Special loss must be within contemplation when the contract was made.
25. A – Ordinary loss is recoverable, but unknown special resale profit is not.
26. A – Correct matching is A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4.
27. C – Uncommunicated special resale profit is least likely to be recoverable.
28. B – S. 74 allows only reasonable compensation, not automatic penal recovery.
29. B – S. 73 also covers failure to discharge obligations resembling contract.
30. D – All four statements correctly state the limits of S. 74.
31. A – Haryana has 22 districts, including Charkhi Dadri.
32. A – Morni-Panchkula, Yamuna eastern boundary, and Kalesar-Yamunanagar are correct.
33. A – Yamuna does not originate from the Aravalli hills within Haryana.
34. B – Haryana has continental/subtropical monsoon climate with hot summers and cold winters.
35. A – Alluvial plains dominate Haryana, with sandy or arid tracts in western and south-western parts.
36. A – Morni-Panchkula, Sultanpur-Gurugram, Bhindawas-Jhajjar, and Kalesar-Yamunanagar are correct.
37. D – Bahadurgarh, Kalka, Hansi and Tohana are not districts of Haryana.
38. A – Brahma Sarovar-Kurukshetra, Battles-Panipat, Surajkund-Faridabad, and Pinjore-Panchkula are correct.
39. C – Total = 18 + 7 + 1 + 22 − 1 = 47.
40. A – Total = 25 + 20 − 1 = 44; B’s new right rank = 30.
41. C – Qualified = 25 + 34 − 1 = 58; registered = 58 + 7 + 3 = 68.
42. C – Y’s left rank = 40; total = 40 + 18 − 1 = 57.
43. A – Total = 23 + 17 − 1 = 39; S’s new back rank = 29.
44. C – Ritu is 15th from top; bottom rank = 40 − 15 + 1 = 26.
45. C – Old top rank = 22; old bottom rank = 60 − 22 + 1 = 39.