1. Raghav, being legally bound by oath before a Court, states: “I personally saw the accused sign the disputed receipt.” In fact, Raghav never saw the signing and is only repeating what another person told him. Which statement most accurately applies BNS S. 227?
(A) He gives false evidence only if the statement is written and not merely oral.
(B) He gives false evidence because he made a false statement while legally bound to state the truth, and he did not know it to be true.
(C) He does not give false evidence because hearsay-based belief is never covered under BNS S. 227.
(D) He gives false evidence only if the accused is actually convicted on the basis of his statement.
2. A police officer is likely to search X’s room in a corruption case. Y secretly places forged account slips in X’s drawer, intending that the slips may appear in evidence before the Court and cause the Court to believe that X received illegal gratification. Which is the most precise legal position?
(A) Y fabricates false evidence because he causes a circumstance or document to exist intending it to appear in evidence and cause an erroneous opinion on a material point.
(B) Y only gives false information to police because the slips were not orally stated before Court.
(C) Y commits no offence until the slips are actually exhibited and relied upon in final judgment.
(D) Y is liable only if X is convicted on the basis of those slips.
3. Consider the following statements regarding punishment for false evidence under BNS S. 229:
1. False evidence intentionally given in any stage of a judicial proceeding may attract imprisonment up to seven years and fine.
2. False evidence intentionally given in cases other than judicial proceedings may attract imprisonment up to three years and fine.
3. A trial before a Court-martial is treated as a judicial proceeding for this purpose.
Which is correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
4. P threatens Q that unless Q falsely states in Court that R committed murder, P will publish private defamatory material about Q’s family member. Q gives false evidence; due to that false evidence, an innocent person is sentenced to imprisonment for more than seven years. Which statement is closest to BNS S. 232?
(A) P is not liable because he did not himself depose before the Court.
(B) P is liable for threatening a person to give false evidence and may face the same punishment and sentence to the same extent where the innocent person is so punished.
(C) P is liable only for criminal intimidation and not for any offence connected with false evidence.
(D) P is liable only if the threat relates to bodily injury, not reputation or property.
5. A government medical officer signs a legally required certificate stating that a prisoner is medically unfit for production in Court, knowing that the certificate is false in a material point. B, the defence clerk, corruptly uses that certificate as true before Court, knowing it to be false. Which is correct?
(A) Only the doctor is punishable; using a false certificate is not separately punishable.
(B) Only B is punishable because actual use before Court is necessary.
(C) Both may be punishable: the doctor for issuing/signing a false certificate and B for using such certificate as true.
(D) Neither is punishable unless the Court actually adjourns the case relying upon the certificate.
6. Under BNSS provisions relating to contents of charge, which of the following is the most accurate statement?
(A) If the offence has a specific statutory name, the charge must reproduce the full definition word by word.
(B) The law and section need not be mentioned if the facts are otherwise clear from the police report.
(C) Previous conviction, if relevant for enhanced punishment, can never be added after the charge is framed.
(D) The charge shall state the offence, may describe a specifically named offence by that name, shall mention the law and section, shall be written in the language of the Court, and where previous conviction is relied upon for enhanced punishment, its fact, date and place shall be stated or added before sentence.
7. X is charged with cheating Y, but the charge merely says “X cheated Y on 5 March at Hisar” and gives no manner of deception, though there were many financial dealings between them. Which statement best reflects BNSS S. 236?
(A) The charge is sufficient because time and place are always enough.
(B) In cheating, the manner of cheating must be set out where ordinary particulars do not give sufficient notice to the accused.
(C) Manner of commission is required only in murder cases, not in cheating cases.
(D) The omission is always immaterial even if the accused cannot know which transaction is alleged.
8. A charge wrongly mentions the victim’s name as “Haidar” instead of “Khadar”, but the accused had heard the entire inquiry and knew that only one incident was in question. Which is the best legal result under BNSS S. 238?
(A) The trial is void automatically because every error in charge is fatal.
(B) The Court must acquit because the exact name of the victim is part of the charge.
(C) The error is material only if the accused was in fact misled and failure of justice was occasioned.
(D) The error can be cured only by filing a fresh FIR.
9. During trial, the Court adds an additional charge before judgment. The new charge is read and explained to the accused. The Court finds that immediate continuation will prejudice the accused’s defence. What may the Court do?
(A) It must continue because charge can be altered only before evidence starts.
(B) It must acquit the accused because alteration after commencement of trial is barred.
(C) It may either direct a new trial or adjourn the trial for such period as necessary.
(D) It may proceed without considering prejudice once the charge is read out.
10. After alteration of charge, the accused applies to recall two prosecution witnesses for cross-examination limited to the altered charge. The prosecution alleges delay but gives no convincing basis. Which is most accurate?
(A) Recall or re-summoning should ordinarily be allowed with reference to alteration unless the Court records reasons that the request is for vexation, delay or defeating justice.
(B) Recall is never allowed after alteration of charge because evidence already recorded remains final.
(C) Only the prosecution, not the accused, has a statutory right to recall witnesses.
(D) Recall is possible only if the altered charge creates a higher punishment.
11. A is accused of five offences of the same kind, punishable under the same section with the same punishment, committed within twelve months from the first to the last offence. Under BNSS joinder provisions, which is correct?
(A) Only three such offences can be tried together.
(B) Any number not exceeding five may be charged and tried at one trial.
(C) They must always be tried separately because every distinct offence requires a separate trial without exception.
(D) They may be tried together only if committed against the same victim.
12. During one continuous criminal occurrence, A commits house-breaking, steals jewellery, voluntarily causes hurt while escaping with the jewellery, and immediately uses a forged delivery slip as part of the same chain of acts to conceal the theft. Which statement best applies BNSS S. 243?
(A) Only the gravest offence can be charged because multiple charges prejudice the accused.
(B) All offences committed in one series of acts so connected together as to form the same transaction may be charged and tried at one trial.
(C) Offences forming the same transaction can be joined only if they are punishable with identical punishment.
(D) Joinder is possible only in summons cases, not in serious offences.
13. In a Sessions case, the accused files an application for discharge within the prescribed period after commitment. After considering the record of the case, documents submitted and hearing the prosecution and the accused, the Judge finds that there is no sufficient ground for proceeding. What is the proper order under BNSS S. 250?
(A) The Judge must frame charge because Sessions trials cannot end before evidence.
(B) The Judge shall discharge the accused and record reasons for doing so.
(C) The Judge shall send the case back to the Magistrate for fresh cognizance.
(D) The Judge shall acquit the accused after full judgment on merits.
14. A written contract is contained in a chain of five letters exchanged between the parties. One party produces only the last letter and seeks to prove the rest of the contractual terms orally. Which statement best applies BSA S. 94?
(A) Oral evidence is freely admissible because letters are not formal contracts.
(B) If a contract is contained in several letters, all letters containing the contract must be proved.
(C) Only the last letter is needed because it is the final communication.
(D) Oral evidence is barred even to prove collateral facts mentioned in the document.
15. A written sale deed states: “Seller agrees to sell my horse to Buyer for ₹1,00,000 or ₹1,50,000.” The seller wants to lead oral evidence that the intended price was ₹1,50,000. Which is the correct position under BSA S. 96?
(A) Oral evidence is admissible because price is always a collateral fact.
(B) Oral evidence is admissible because every ambiguity can be removed by oral explanation.
(C) Oral evidence is not admissible to explain or amend language which is ambiguous or defective on its face.
(D) Oral evidence is admissible only if both parties are alive.
16. A promises B that A will save B from loss caused by any proceedings which C may take against B in respect of a disputed loan. Which statement correctly distinguishes this transaction?
(A) It is a guarantee because every promise to save another from loss involves a principal debtor.
(B) It is indemnity because one party promises to save the other from loss caused by the promisor or another person.
(C) It is neither indemnity nor guarantee unless three parties sign the same document.
(D) It is a wagering agreement because the loss may or may not occur.
17. B is sued by C in a matter covered by A’s contract of indemnity. B defends the suit without disobeying A’s instructions and acts prudently. Later B compromises the suit on reasonable terms not contrary to A’s orders. What can B recover from A?
(A) Only the damages decreed, not costs or compromise amount.
(B) Only costs, because compromise is always voluntary.
(C) Only the compromise amount, not litigation costs.
(D) Damages, proper costs, and prudent or authorised compromise sums falling within the indemnity.
18. Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding a contract of guarantee?
(A) It is a contract to compensate loss caused by accident, without any default of a third person.
(B) It must always be in writing and registered.
(C) It is a contract to perform the promise or discharge the liability of a third person in case of his default, and may be oral or written.
(D) It is valid only if the surety receives direct cash consideration from the creditor.
19. C guarantees payment of B’s bill of exchange accepted by B in favour of A. B dishonours the bill and interest and charges accrue. Unless the contract provides otherwise, what is C’s liability?
(A) C is liable only for half the principal amount because liability of surety is secondary.
(B) C’s liability is co-extensive with that of B and may include interest and charges.
(C) C is liable only after A exhausts all remedies against B’s property.
(D) C is not liable unless B admits default in writing.
20. A guarantees to a tea dealer payment up to ₹1,00,000 for tea to be supplied from time to time to B. After some supplies, A gives notice revoking the guarantee. Which is correct?
(A) A is discharged from all past and future liability immediately.
(B) A remains liable for all future transactions despite notice.
(C) A is discharged only for past transactions, not future ones.
(D) A remains liable for transactions before revocation but is discharged as to future transactions.
21. A becomes surety for B’s conduct as a salaried cashier. Without A’s consent, creditor C and B change the terms so that B is paid by commission and has additional risky duties. B later defaults after the change. Which statement is correct?
(A) A is discharged as to transactions subsequent to the variance made without his consent.
(B) A remains fully liable because variance between creditor and principal debtor never affects surety.
(C) A is discharged only if the variance is fraudulent.
(D) A is liable because suretyship always covers every future alteration.
22. Which combination correctly states the law on discharge of surety?
(A) Release of principal debtor by contract may discharge surety.
(B) Creditor’s promise to give time to principal debtor without surety’s assent may discharge surety.
(C) Mere forbearance to sue principal debtor does not, by itself, discharge surety.
(D) All of the above.
23. C lends ₹5 lakh to B, secured by mortgage of B’s machinery, and A also stands surety. At the time of guarantee, C has the machinery security. Later, without A’s consent, C releases the machinery security worth ₹2 lakh. What is A’s position?
(A) A is discharged fully in every case once any security is released.
(B) A is discharged to the extent of the value of the security lost or parted with.
(C) A is not discharged because he did not know about the security.
(D) A is liable for double amount because release of security benefits the debtor.
24. C obtains A’s guarantee for B’s employment without disclosing B’s earlier misappropriation known to C. In another case, C obtains guarantee by making a material misrepresentation about B’s financial condition. Which statement is correct?
(A) Both guarantees are valid because surety must make independent inquiry.
(B) Only concealment invalidates guarantee; misrepresentation never does.
(C) Only misrepresentation invalidates guarantee; concealment never does.
(D) Guarantee obtained by material misrepresentation or by concealment of material circumstances may be invalid.
25. A surety pays the guaranteed debt after default of the principal debtor. Which is the most accurate statement?
(A) The surety has no remedy against the principal debtor because payment was voluntary.
(B) The surety is invested with the creditor’s rights against the principal debtor and may recover sums rightfully paid.
(C) The surety may recover even sums wrongfully paid beyond the guarantee.
(D) The surety can recover only if a separate indemnity deed was executed.
26. A, B and C are co-sureties for the same debt of ₹90,000. They executed different guarantee documents and did not know of each other’s guarantee. There is no contract changing contribution. How are they liable inter se?
(A) The first surety alone must pay the whole debt.
(B) The last surety alone must pay because his guarantee is latest.
(C) They contribute equally, ₹30,000 each, as between themselves.
(D) Contribution is impossible because they signed different contracts.
27. A, B and C are co-sureties for D’s default, bound respectively up to ₹10,000, ₹20,000 and ₹40,000. D defaults to the extent of ₹40,000. How should the liability be shared inter se?
(A) A ₹10,000; B ₹15,000; C ₹15,000.
(B) A ₹13,333; B ₹13,333; C ₹13,334.
(C) A ₹10,000; B ₹20,000; C ₹10,000.
(D) A ₹0; B ₹20,000; C ₹20,000.
28. A and B jointly execute a promissory note in favour of C. As between A and B, A is only surety for B, and C knows this arrangement, but C is not a party to that internal arrangement. Which is correct?
(A) C cannot sue A because A is only surety internally.
(B) A’s liability to C is extinguished by the private arrangement.
(C) A’s liability to C is not affected by the private arrangement between A and B.
(D) C must first sue B and obtain an unsatisfied decree.
29. Which is the best comparison between indemnity and guarantee?
(A) Indemnity always requires three parties; guarantee requires only two parties.
(B) Indemnity has a primary promise to save from loss; guarantee has a collateral promise to answer for default of a third person.
(C) Indemnity can be oral, but guarantee must always be written.
(D) In guarantee, the surety never gets rights against the principal debtor.
30. C releases one of three co-sureties, A, from liability under the guarantee. B and D are the other co-sureties. Which statement is legally correct?
(A) B and D are automatically discharged.
(B) A is also freed from responsibility to B and D.
(C) The principal debtor alone becomes liable and no surety remains liable.
(D) Release of one co-surety does not discharge the others and does not free the released surety from responsibility to the other co-sureties.
31. Arrange the following Delhi Sultanate dynasties in correct chronological order:
1. Tughlaq
2. Khalji
3. Sayyid
4. Mamluk/Slave
5. Lodi
(A) 4, 2, 1, 3, 5
(B) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
(C) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
(D) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3
32. Consider the following statements:
1. Iltutmish is commonly associated with consolidation of the iqta system and with the silver tanka and copper jital coinage.
2. Alauddin Khalji adopted strict market-control measures and maintained a strong intelligence network.
3. Muhammad bin Tughlaq is associated with token currency and transfer of capital to Daulatabad.
Which is correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
33. Which pairing is most accurate in relation to Alauddin Khalji’s administrative measures?
(A) Diwan-i-Kohi — market regulation; Dagh — land revenue remission
(B) Diwan-i-Riyasat — market control; Shahna-i-Mandi — market supervision
(C) Ibadat Khana — price control; Zat — branding of horses
(D) Dahsala — Khalji military branding; Munhiyan — revenue villages
34. Which of the following is most closely associated with Balban’s theory and practice of kingship?
(A) Emphasis on royal dignity, stern justice, control over nobles, and practices such as sijda and paibos.
(B) Abolition of monarchy and introduction of elected nobility.
(C) Introduction of Din-i-Ilahi and Sulh-i-Kul.
(D) Construction of Buland Darwaza after Gujarat victory.
35. With reference to Mughal mansabdari, which statement is correct?
(A) Zat denoted only the number of horses to be maintained, while sawar denoted personal rank.
(B) Mansabs were strictly hereditary offices transferable from father to son as of right.
(C) Zat indicated personal rank/status, sawar indicated cavalry obligation, and jagir was generally a revenue assignment.
(D) Khalisa land was always assigned to mansabdars as personal property.
36. Consider the following statements about Akbar:
1. The Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was associated with religious discussions.
2. Din-i-Ilahi is associated with Akbar’s later religious experiments.
3. Akbar’s policy is often connected with Sulh-i-Kul.
Which is correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
37. Which statement best describes the Dahsala/Zabt revenue system under Akbar?
(A) It was introduced by Babur to distribute war booty among soldiers.
(B) It involved assessment based on measurement and average produce/prices, commonly linked with Todar Mal’s revenue arrangements.
(C) It was a naval tax collected only in coastal provinces.
(D) It replaced all jagirs with hereditary zamindari ownership.
38. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
(A) Alai Darwaza — Alauddin Khalji
(B) Qutub Minar completion — Iltutmish
(C) Buland Darwaza — Akbar
(D) Red Fort, Delhi — Babur
39. Arrange the following rulers in correct chronological order of accession:
1. Akbar
2. Babur
3. Shah Jahan
4. Jahangir
5. Humayun
6. Aurangzeb
(A) 2, 5, 1, 4, 3, 6
(B) 5, 2, 1, 4, 3, 6
(C) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3, 6
(D) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3, 6
40. A shopkeeper marks an article at ₹3,200 and allows successive discounts of 15% and 10%. Even after these discounts, he earns 20% profit on cost price. What is the cost price?
(A) ₹1,960
(B) ₹2,040
(C) ₹2,120
(D) ₹2,240
41. A trader marks goods 40% above cost price and allows successive discounts of 10% and 5% on the marked price. What is his profit percentage?
(A) 17.5%
(B) 18.8%
(C) 19.7%
(D) 21.2%
42. An article is sold at 20% profit. Had its cost price been 10% less and selling price ₹54 less, the profit would have been 30%. Find the original cost price.
(A) ₹1,500
(B) ₹1,650
(C) ₹1,800
(D) ₹2,000
43. An article marked at ₹5,000 is sold after successive discounts of 20%, 15% and 5%. What is the net selling price and equivalent single discount?
(A) ₹3,400 and 32%
(B) ₹3,250 and 35%
(C) ₹3,230 and 35.4%
(D) ₹3,280 and 34.4%
44. A dishonest dealer marks his goods 20% above cost price and gives a 10% discount, but while selling 1 kg, he actually gives only 900 grams. What is his effective profit percentage?
(A) 20%
(B) 18%
(C) 16⅔%
(D) 25%
45. A shopkeeper allows 12.5% discount on marked price and still gains 16⅔% on cost price. If the cost price is ₹2,100, what is the marked price?
(A) ₹2,625
(B) ₹2,700
(C) ₹2,800
(D) ₹2,940
ANSWER KEY WITH ONE-LINER EXPLANATIONS
1. B — False evidence includes a false statement made while legally bound to state the truth.
2. A — Planting false documents to influence a Court on a material point amounts to fabricating false evidence.
3. D — All three statements correctly reflect punishment and judicial proceeding treatment under BNS.
4. B — Threatening a person to give false evidence attracts liability and enhanced consequence if an innocent person is punished.
5. C — Issuing a false certificate and corruptly using it as true are separately punishable.
6. D — A charge must state the offence, law, section, language of Court and relevant previous conviction particulars.
7. B — In cheating, the manner must be stated where ordinary particulars do not sufficiently inform the accused.
8. C — Error in charge is fatal only if it misleads the accused and causes failure of justice.
9. C — After alteration or addition of charge, the Court may adjourn or direct a new trial if prejudice may result.
10. A — Witnesses may be recalled after charge alteration unless the request is vexatious, delaying or defeating justice.
11. B — Up to five same-kind offences committed within twelve months may be tried together.
12. B — Offences forming the same transaction may be charged and tried together.
13. B — If no sufficient ground exists in a Sessions case, the Judge discharges the accused with reasons.
14. B — When a contract is contained in several letters, all letters forming the contract must be proved.
15. C — Patent ambiguity on the face of a document cannot be explained or amended by oral evidence.
16. B — Indemnity is a promise to save another from loss caused by the promisor or another person.
17. D — An indemnity-holder may recover damages, proper costs and reasonable authorised compromise sums.
18. C — Guarantee is a contract to answer for the default of a third person and may be oral or written.
19. B — Surety’s liability is co-extensive with that of the principal debtor unless otherwise agreed.
20. D — Revocation of continuing guarantee affects future transactions only, not past liability.
21. A — Material variance without surety’s consent discharges the surety for subsequent transactions.
22. D — Release, giving time and mere forbearance rules are correctly stated in all options A, B and C.
23. B — Surety is discharged to the extent of the value of security lost or released by the creditor.
24. D — Guarantee obtained by material misrepresentation or concealment of material facts may be invalid.
25. B — A paying surety steps into the creditor’s rights and can recover rightfully paid sums.
26. C — Co-sureties contribute equally unless there is a contrary contract.
27. A — Liability is shared equally as far as limits permit, so A pays ₹10,000 and B and C pay ₹15,000 each.
28. C — A private surety arrangement does not affect the creditor’s right against joint promisors.
29. B — Indemnity is primary loss-protection, while guarantee is collateral liability for another’s default.
30. D — Release of one co-surety does not discharge others or remove inter se contribution liability.
31. A — Correct order is Mamluk/Slave, Khalji, Tughlaq, Sayyid and Lodi.
32. D — Iltutmish, Alauddin Khalji and Muhammad bin Tughlaq are correctly matched with the stated measures.
33. B — Diwan-i-Riyasat and Shahna-i-Mandi are connected with Alauddin Khalji’s market control system.
34. A — Balban is associated with royal dignity, stern justice, noble control, sijda and paibos.
35. C — Zat denoted personal rank, sawar denoted cavalry obligation and jagir was revenue assignment.
36. D — Ibadat Khana, Din-i-Ilahi and Sulh-i-Kul are all associated with Akbar.
37. B — Dahsala/Zabt involved measurement and average produce/prices, linked with Todar Mal’s arrangements.
38. D — Red Fort, Delhi was built by Shah Jahan, not Babur.
39. A — Correct Mughal accession order is Babur, Humayun, Akbar, Jahangir, Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb.
40. B — Selling price is ₹2448 and cost price is ₹2448 ÷ 1.20 = ₹2040.
41. C — Effective selling price on cost 100 is 140 × 0.90 × 0.95 = 119.7, giving 19.7% profit.
42. C — Using 1.2x − 54 = 1.3 × 0.9x gives original cost price ₹1800.
43. C — Net price is 5000 × 0.80 × 0.85 × 0.95 = ₹3230, so discount is 35.4%.
44. A — Dealer receives 108% of cost for 900g whose cost is 90%, giving 20% profit.
45. C — Selling price is ₹2450 and marked price is ₹2450 ÷ 0.875 = ₹2800.