1. A record clerk attached to a criminal court is legally charged with preparing a custody production register. To help an accused avoid consequences for illegal non-production, he knowingly prepares the register in a manner showing timely production, though he knows the entry is false. Which is the most accurate legal position under BNS?
(A) It falls under public servant disobeying direction of law with intent to save punishment, punishable up to two years
(B) It falls under public servant framing incorrect record or writing with intent to save person from punishment, punishable up to three years
(C) It falls only under giving false evidence, because the register may later be used in a judicial proceeding
(D) It is not punishable unless the accused is actually acquitted because of that false register
2. A revenue officer, while sitting as an authority in a judicial proceeding, maliciously passes an order which he knows is contrary to law, so that one party gets an unlawful advantage. Which statement is correct?
(A) It is punishable only if the order causes actual monetary loss
(B) It is punishable only if the order is proved to be forged
(C) It attracts the provision concerning public servant in judicial proceeding corruptly making report, order, verdict or decision contrary to law
(D) It is merely a departmental wrong unless the public servant receives illegal gratification
3. A jail officer, legally bound to keep a convicted prisoner in confinement, negligently leaves the prison gate unsecured, due to which the prisoner escapes. There is no evidence of intentional aid or collusion. What is the correct offence classification?
(A) Intentional omission to apprehend person under sentence
(B) Escape from confinement or custody negligently suffered by public servant
(C) Resistance or obstruction to lawful apprehension by the prisoner himself
(D) Violation of remission condition by a released convict
4. A police officer is legally bound to apprehend X, who is liable to be arrested for an offence punishable with death. The officer intentionally omits to arrest X because X is politically influential. What is the maximum punishment attracted for the officer under BNS?
(A) Imprisonment up to two years, with or without fine
(B) Imprisonment up to three years, with or without fine
(C) Imprisonment up to seven years, with or without fine
(D) Imprisonment for life or up to fourteen years, with or without fine
5. A prison superintendent intentionally allows a prisoner under sentence of death to escape from lawful custody. Which punishment correctly reflects the aggravated category under BNS?
(A) Imprisonment up to seven years and fine
(B) Imprisonment for life or imprisonment up to fourteen years, with or without fine
(C) Simple imprisonment up to two years or fine or both
(D) Imprisonment up to three years or fine or both
6. X, who has been lawfully arrested for a cognizable offence, pushes the police officer, runs away from custody and is later caught. The charge is only regarding his own resistance and escape, not rescue of another person. Which is correct?
(A) X is punishable only for the original offence and not for escape from custody
(B) X may be punished for resistance or obstruction to his lawful apprehension, and such punishment is in addition to punishment for the original offence
(C) X can be punished only if the original offence is punishable with death or imprisonment for life
(D) X can be punished only if the police officer suffered grievous hurt during the escape
7. A mob intentionally rescues Y from police custody. Y was liable to be apprehended for an offence punishable with imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years. Under BNS, what is the most accurate punishment category?
(A) Imprisonment up to two years, or fine, or both
(B) Imprisonment up to six months, or fine, or both
(C) Imprisonment for life or imprisonment up to ten years and fine
(D) Imprisonment of either description up to three years and shall also be liable to fine
8. A convict accepts conditional remission of punishment. After release, he knowingly violates the very condition on which remission was granted. Which statement best states the consequence under BNS?
(A) He must be tried again for the original offence before the remission can be cancelled
(B) He is punishable only with fine because remission has already been granted
(C) He is liable to suffer the original punishment if no part was suffered, or the remaining part if part was already suffered
(D) He can be punished only if the condition violated was separately declared to be an offence
9. An accused released on a bail bond repeatedly fails to appear before the trial court. He claims “personal difficulty” but gives no legally sufficient cause. Under BNS, which is correct?
(A) The burden is on the prosecution to prove that no sufficient cause existed
(B) The offence is complete only after the bail bond is formally forfeited
(C) The burden of proving sufficient cause lies on the accused, and punishment may be in addition to punishment for the charged offence
(D) No prosecution is possible because non-appearance is controlled exclusively by bond forfeiture provisions
10. In a summons-case before a Magistrate, after the accusation has been put to the accused, the accused clearly pleads guilty. Which one of the following best states the Magistrate’s power under BNSS?
(A) The Magistrate must compulsorily convict the accused once the plea of guilty is made
(B) The Magistrate shall record the plea as nearly as possible in the words used by the accused and may, in his discretion, convict him
(C) The Magistrate must frame a formal charge before recording the plea of guilty
(D) The Magistrate must first record complete prosecution evidence before acting on the plea
11. In a petty summons-case, the accused receives summons and wants to plead guilty without personal appearance. He sends a letter containing his plea and the fine amount mentioned in the summons. What may the Magistrate do?
(A) Reject the plea because personal presence is mandatory in all criminal cases
(B) Convict only after issuing a bailable warrant to secure presence
(C) In discretion, convict in absence on such plea and adjust the amount towards fine
(D) Treat the letter as inadmissible because plea of guilt can never be sent by post or messenger
12. A summons-case instituted otherwise than upon complaint is pending before a Judicial Magistrate. Before judgment, the Magistrate considers stopping the proceedings. Which combination is correct?
(A) A Magistrate of first class may stop proceedings for recorded reasons; any other Judicial Magistrate may do so with previous sanction of the Chief Judicial Magistrate
(B) Any Magistrate may stop proceedings without recording reasons because it is only a summons-case
(C) Proceedings can be stopped only after all prosecution witnesses are examined
(D) Stoppage always results in acquittal, regardless of whether principal witnesses were recorded
13. Consider the following statements about summary trials under BNSS:
1. In summary trials, summons-case procedure is generally followed, subject to special provisions.
2. A sentence of imprisonment exceeding three months cannot be passed in a conviction under summary trial.
3. A Magistrate of second class can try summarily only if empowered by the High Court and only within the statutory category.
Which is correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
14. Which one of the following cases is clearly outside the plea-bargaining chapter under BNSS?
(A) A first-time accused facing an offence punishable up to three years, not involving a woman, child or socio-economic offence
(B) An accused filing application within thirty days from framing of charge with an affidavit of voluntariness
(C) An accused charged with an offence punishable with imprisonment for life
(D) A complaint case where cognizance has been taken and process issued, and the offence is punishable below seven years
15. A written contract states that B shall sell cotton to A and that the price shall be paid on delivery. A and B also orally agree at the same time that A will get three months’ credit. Later C, whose interests are affected by the credit arrangement, wants to prove the oral agreement. Which is correct under BSA?
(A) A and B can prove it inter se because contemporaneous oral agreements are always admissible
(B) C may prove it if it affects his interest, although A and B could not prove it as between themselves
(C) No one can prove it because all oral agreements varying written contracts are absolutely excluded
(D) It is admissible only if the written contract is ambiguous on its face
16. Which of the following most accurately states the essential ingredients of “partnership” under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932?
(A) Common ownership of property, sharing of gross returns, common residence and equal contribution of capital
(B) Agreement between persons, sharing of profits of business, and business carried on by all or any of them acting for all
(C) Registration of firm, written deed, equal capital contribution and equal participation in daily management
(D) Common surname, family business, pooling of property and joint enjoyment of income
17. A Hindu undivided family carries on ancestral business. Members share income and take part in management as family members, but there is no contract creating partnership. Which is correct?
(A) They are partners because business income is shared
(B) They are partners because status and family relationship are sufficient
(C) They are not partners merely by status; partnership arises from contract
(D) They become partners automatically if the business earns profit
18. X and Y jointly own a commercial building and share rent in equal proportion. They appoint a manager to collect rent but do not carry on business in partnership and neither is agent of the other. Which statement is correct?
(A) They are partners because they share gross returns from property
(B) They are partners because common ownership always implies mutual agency
(C) They are not partners merely because they share returns from jointly owned property
(D) They are partners if the rent received is deposited in a joint bank account
19. A lender advances money to a trading concern and agrees to receive 15% of annual profits instead of fixed interest. The lender does not participate in business and has no authority to bind the concern. Which is correct?
(A) Receipt of profit share by a lender necessarily makes him a partner
(B) Receipt of profit share is relevant but does not by itself make him a partner
(C) He becomes a partner because sharing losses is not necessary for partnership
(D) He becomes a partner because mutual agency is presumed from every profit-linked payment
20. Which one is the most conclusive test for distinguishing partnership from co-ownership, profit-sharing arrangement or creditor-debtor relationship?
(A) Whether parties use a common office address
(B) Whether all parties contribute capital equally
(C) Whether there is mutual agency, i.e., business carried on by all or any acting for all
(D) Whether profits are distributed at the end of every financial year
21. A, B and C agree to purchase one cargo of edible oil, sell it in the same season, divide profits, and then end the arrangement. There is no intention to continue future business. Which statement is correct?
(A) No partnership can exist because partnership must be permanent
(B) This may amount to a particular partnership for a particular adventure or undertaking
(C) It is partnership at will because every partnership for one transaction is automatically at will
(D) It is only co-ownership because a single adventure can never be business
22. A partnership deed is silent about duration of the firm and contains no provision for determination of partnership. Which statement is correct?
(A) It is a partnership at will
(B) It is void for uncertainty
(C) It must be treated as a company
(D) It must be compulsorily dissolved after one year
23. P, a partner of a firm dealing in stationery, orders paper in the usual course of firm business in the firm name. Other partners later object that P did not obtain prior consent. Which is correct?
(A) Firm is not bound because every order requires unanimous consent
(B) Firm is bound if the act was done in the usual way of the business of the kind carried on by the firm
(C) Firm is bound only if the partnership deed was registered
(D) Firm is never bound by one partner’s act unless all partners sign the order
24. Which of the following acts is ordinarily outside a partner’s implied authority, unless usage, custom or express authority supports it?
(A) Purchasing stock usually required for the firm’s trading business
(B) Selling ordinary goods of the firm in the usual course of business
(C) Opening a banking account on behalf of the firm in the partner’s own name
(D) Receiving payment from a customer for goods sold by the firm
25. The partners internally restrict A’s authority not to purchase goods above ₹50,000. A purchases goods worth ₹1,00,000 from T in the firm name, and the purchase is otherwise within implied authority. T neither knows of the restriction nor has reason to doubt A’s partnership. Which is correct?
(A) Firm is not bound because internal restriction always defeats third-party rights
(B) Firm is bound because the act falls within implied authority and T had no knowledge of the restriction
(C) A alone is bound; firm can never be bound by an act beyond internal monetary limit
(D) T must prove that all partners expressly authorised A in writing
26. For an act or instrument executed by a partner to bind the firm, which statement is most accurate?
(A) It must always bear signatures of all partners
(B) It must be done in the firm name or in a manner expressing or implying intention to bind the firm
(C) It must always be notarised and registered
(D) It must always mention the personal names of all partners separately
27. Subject to contract between partners, which statement is correct regarding mutual rights and duties?
(A) Every partner is entitled to remuneration for taking part in business
(B) Profits are shared equally and losses contributed equally, unless otherwise agreed
(C) A partner can change the nature of business by majority decision
(D) A partner has no right to inspect books unless he is managing partner
28. A partner derives secret profit by using firm’s business connection for a private transaction. The partnership deed is silent. Which is correct?
(A) He may retain the profit because he used personal skill
(B) He must account for and pay such profit to the firm
(C) He is liable only if the firm proves actual loss
(D) He is liable only if all other partners had objected in advance
29. X represents himself to be a partner of Firm ABC. On faith of that representation, C gives credit to the firm. X later says he was never actually a partner. Which is correct?
(A) X may be liable by holding out if credit was given on faith of the representation
(B) X is never liable unless he signed the partnership deed
(C) X is liable only if he received a share of profit
(D) X is liable only if the firm was registered
30. A sleeping partner does not take part in daily management, but the firm’s business is carried on by other partners acting for all. Which statement is correct?
(A) He cannot be a partner because every partner must personally manage business daily
(B) He may still be a partner because business may be carried on by all or any of them acting for all
(C) He is only a lender because absence from management destroys partnership
(D) He is a partner only if his name appears in every invoice of the firm
31. Consider the following statements about Indian minerals:
1. Bauxite is the principal ore of aluminium.
2. Magnetite and haematite are important iron ores.
3. Mica reserves are associated with regions such as Jharkhand, Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh.
4. Coal-bearing Gondwana formations are closely associated with Damodar valley fields.
Which is correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 3 only
32. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
(A) Khetri belt — Copper
(B) Korba — Coal and thermal power
(C) Digboi — Petroleum
(D) Kudremukh — Bauxite mining as principal identity
33. Heavy industries such as iron and steel tend to develop near mineral-rich regions because they require bulky raw materials, power, water, transport and market linkages. Which region best represents such mineral-industrial concentration?
(A) Chota Nagpur plateau region
(B) Rajasthan desert region only
(C) Lakshadweep coral islands
(D) Malabar coastal plantation belt only
34. Consider the following statements about Census 2011:
1. India’s population was about 1.21 billion.
2. Population density was 382 persons per square kilometre.
3. Literacy rate was about 74.04 percent.
4. Census data is relevant for planning, welfare targeting and demographic analysis.
Which is correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
35. Which one of the following statements is most accurate regarding population distribution in India?
(A) Population density and total population are identical measures
(B) A state with the largest area must necessarily have the largest population
(C) Physical relief, water availability, soil fertility, industries and transport affect population distribution
(D) Census density is calculated by dividing land area by total population
36. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(A) Jute industry — Hooghly basin region
(B) Cotton textile industry — exclusively Himalayan region
(C) Iron and steel industry — only coastal fishing villages
(D) Petroleum refining — only areas without transport linkage
37. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate reason for concentration of cotton textile industries in western India historically?
(A) Humid climate and port facilities
(B) Availability of capital and transport network
(C) Proximity to cotton-growing areas
(D) Exclusive dependence on iron ore and limestone deposits
38. Consider the following statements about conservation of minerals:
1. Minerals are finite and many are non-renewable on human time scales.
2. Recycling, substitution and improved technology help reduce mineral wastage.
3. Sustainable mining includes environmental safeguards and efficient extraction.
Which is correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
39. Which statement about the Indian Census is most accurate?
(A) Census 2011 remains the latest completed national population Census data commonly used in official datasets
(B) It is conducted every five years by the Election Commission of India
(C) It counts only adult citizens eligible to vote
(D) It records only urban population and excludes rural households
40. Which one of the following combinations is most accurate for mineral/industrial geography?
(A) Bokaro — Steel; Raniganj — Coal; Jamnagar — Petroleum refining
(B) Kolar — Bauxite; Digboi — Iron ore; Jharia — Mica
(C) Khetri — Jute; Bhilai — Petroleum; Ankleshwar — Coal
(D) Durgapur — Tea; Korba — Cotton textile; Mumbai High — Limestone
41. Syllogism
Statements:
Some lawyers are teachers.
All teachers are readers.
No reader is careless.
Conclusions:
I. Some lawyers are readers.
II. No teacher is careless.
III. Some lawyers are not careless.
Which follows?
(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and III only
(D) I, II and III
42. Syllogism
Statements:
Some minerals are resources.
All resources are assets.
No asset is infinite.
Conclusions:
I. Some minerals are assets.
II. No resource is infinite.
III. Some minerals are infinite.
Which follows?
(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and III only
(D) I, II and III
43. Syllogism
Statements:
All census tables are data.
Some data are provisional.
All provisional data are revised.
Conclusions:
I. Some data are census tables.
II. Some revised items are data.
III. Some census tables are revised.
Which follows?
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III
44. Syllogism
Statements:
No village is a metropolis.
Some towns are villages.
All towns are settlements.
Conclusions:
I. Some settlements are villages.
II. Some towns are not metropolis.
III. No settlement is metropolis.
Which follows?
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
45. Syllogism
Statements:
All geographers are researchers.
Some researchers are planners.
No planner is careless.
Conclusions:
I. Some researchers are not careless.
II. All geographers being careless is a possibility.
III. Some geographers are planners.
Which follows?
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III
ANSWER KEY WITH ONE-LINER EXPLANATIONS
1. B — BNS S. 256 covers incorrect record or writing by a public servant to save a person from punishment.
2. C — BNS S. 257 covers a corrupt or malicious judicial order, report, verdict or decision contrary to law.
3. B — BNS S. 261 separately punishes negligent escape from confinement or custody suffered by a public servant.
4. C — BNS S. 259 allows imprisonment up to seven years where the person was liable for a death-punishable offence.
5. B — BNS S. 260 gives the aggravated punishment where the escaped person was under sentence of death.
6. B — BNS S. 262 punishes resistance to one’s own lawful apprehension in addition to punishment for the original offence.
7. D — BNS S. 263 punishes rescue of a person liable for life imprisonment or up to ten years with imprisonment up to three years and fine liability.
8. C — BNS S. 266 revives the original punishment or the remaining punishment on breach of remission condition.
9. C — BNS S. 269 puts the burden of proving sufficient cause for non-appearance on the accused.
10. B — BNSS S. 275 requires the guilty plea to be recorded in the accused’s own words and makes conviction discretionary.
11. C — BNSS S. 276 permits conviction in petty cases on a guilty plea sent without personal appearance.
12. A — BNSS S. 281 permits stoppage of non-complaint summons-cases with recorded reasons and prescribed authority.
13. D — BNSS S. 284 and S. 285 support all three statements on summary trial power, procedure and sentence limit.
14. C — BNSS plea bargaining is excluded for offences punishable with death, life imprisonment or imprisonment exceeding seven years.
15. B — BSA S. 102 allows an affected non-party to prove a contemporaneous oral agreement varying written terms.
16. B — Partnership requires agreement, business, profit-sharing and mutual agency.
17. C — Partnership arises from contract, not merely from HUF status.
18. C — Sharing rent from jointly owned property does not by itself create partnership.
19. B — A profit-linked return to a lender is relevant but not conclusive of partnership.
20. C — Mutual agency is the decisive test of partnership.
21. B — A single commercial adventure may create a particular partnership.
22. A — No fixed duration or determination clause makes the firm a partnership at will.
23. B — A usual-course act by a partner binds the firm under implied authority.
24. C — Opening a firm bank account in the partner’s own name is ordinarily outside implied authority.
25. B — An internal restriction does not defeat an unaware third party when the act is otherwise within implied authority.
26. B — A partner’s act binds the firm when done in the firm name or in a manner showing intention to bind the firm.
27. B — Subject to contract, partners share profits and losses equally.
28. B — A partner must account for secret profits derived from firm business connection.
29. A — Holding out creates liability when credit is given on faith of the representation.
30. B — A sleeping partner remains a partner because business may be carried on by any partner acting for all.
31. C — All four statements correctly reflect standard Indian mineral geography.
32. D — Kudremukh is known mainly for iron ore, not bauxite.
33. A — Chota Nagpur is a classic mineral-industrial concentration region.
34. D — All four statements correctly describe Census 2011 basics and census utility.
35. C — Population distribution is affected by relief, water, soil, industry and transport.
36. A — The Hooghly basin is associated with the jute industry.
37. D — Cotton textiles do not depend on iron ore and limestone deposits.
38. D — Mineral conservation includes recycling, substitution, efficient extraction and environmental safeguards.
39. A — Census 2011 remains the latest completed national population Census data commonly used in official datasets.
40. A — Bokaro-steel, Raniganj-coal and Jamnagar-refining are correctly matched.
41. D — Some lawyers are teachers, all teachers are readers, and no reader is careless, so all three conclusions follow.
42. A — Some minerals are assets through resources, and no resource can be infinite.
43. B — Some data are census tables, and some revised items are data.
44. C — Some towns are villages, so some settlements are villages and some towns are not metropolises.
45. B — Some researchers are not careless, and all geographers being careless remains possible.