1. A Court clerk, being a public servant charged with preparing a seizure record, deliberately records the value and description of seized property incorrectly so that the accused may avoid forfeiture and may also face a lesser consequence. Which provision is most directly attracted?
(A) BNS Section 255, because only disobedience of legal direction by a public servant is involved.
(B) BNS Section 256, because a public servant has framed an incorrect record or writing with the required intent.
(C) BNS Section 257, because every wrong record made in Court is treated as a corrupt judicial report.
(D) BNS Section 258, because the act amounts to unlawful commitment for trial or confinement.
2. Consider the following statements regarding BNS Section 257:
I. It applies where a public servant corruptly or maliciously makes or pronounces a report, order, verdict or decision contrary to law in a judicial proceeding.
II. The maximum punishment is only imprisonment up to three years, or fine, or both.
III. It is confined only to reports and does not extend to orders, verdicts or decisions.
IV. Fine may be imposed along with imprisonment.
Which of the above statements is correct?
(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) I, III and IV only
(D) I and IV only
3. A person holding an office that gives him legal authority to commit persons to confinement maliciously keeps an accused in custody, knowing that the confinement is contrary to law. Which answer correctly states the offence and punishment?
(A) BNS Section 256; imprisonment up to three years, or fine, or both.
(B) BNS Section 257; imprisonment up to seven years only, without fine.
(C) BNS Section 258; imprisonment up to seven years, or fine, or both.
(D) BNS Section 261; simple imprisonment up to two years, or fine, or both.
4. A police officer is legally bound to apprehend a person charged with an offence punishable with death. The officer intentionally omits to apprehend him after accepting private influence. Which statement correctly applies the BNS?
(A) The officer is punishable under BNS Section 259 with imprisonment up to seven years, with or without fine.
(B) The officer is punishable under BNS Section 260 with imprisonment for life or up to fourteen years.
(C) The officer is punishable only if the accused was already under sentence of death.
(D) The officer commits no offence unless the accused actually escapes from lawful custody.
5. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer:
List I
A. Escape from confinement or custody negligently suffered by a public servant
B. Resistance or obstruction by a person to his own lawful apprehension
C. Intentional insult or interruption to a public servant sitting in a judicial proceeding
D. Failure by a person released on bail bond or bond to appear in Court
List II
I. BNS Section 269
II. BNS Section 261
III. BNS Section 262
IV. BNS Section 267
(A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(B) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(D) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
6. R rescues S from lawful custody. S was liable to be apprehended for an offence punishable with death. Which statement is most accurate under BNS Section 263?
(A) R is punishable only if S had already been convicted and sentenced to death.
(B) R is punishable only under the general clause with imprisonment up to two years.
(C) R may be punished with imprisonment up to seven years and shall also be liable to fine.
(D) R commits no offence unless the rescue is from police custody and not from private lawful custody.
7. Consider the following statements:
I. BNS Section 264 deals with omission to apprehend or sufferance of escape by a public servant in cases not otherwise provided for.
II. If the omission under Section 264 is intentional, imprisonment may extend to three years, or fine, or both.
III. If the omission under Section 264 is negligent, simple imprisonment may extend to two years, or fine, or both.
IV. BNS Section 265 deals with resistance, obstruction, escape or rescue in residual cases and carries imprisonment up to six months, or fine, or both.
Which option is correct?
(A) I and II only
(B) II and IV only
(C) I, III and IV only
(D) I, II, III and IV
8. A prisoner accepts conditional remission of punishment and thereafter knowingly violates the condition on which remission was granted. Which statement is correct?
(A) He may be punished with the original punishment not suffered by him, depending on whether any part has already been undergone.
(B) He may be punished only with fine because remission has already legally reduced the sentence.
(C) He must be separately tried only for failure to appear on bond under BNS Section 269.
(D) He can be punished only if the remission was granted by a Court and not by the appropriate Government.
9. Which of the following is correct regarding failure by a person released on bail bond or bond to appear in Court under BNS Section 269?
(A) The prosecution must prove absence of sufficient cause beyond all doubt as a separate ingredient.
(B) The punishment under this section substitutes the punishment for the original offence.
(C) The burden of proving sufficient cause lies upon the accused, and the punishment is without prejudice to bond forfeiture.
(D) The section applies only after final conviction and not during the pendency of trial.
10. In a summons-case, the accused appears before the Magistrate and, after the accusation is put to him in accordance with law, pleads guilty. Which statement correctly states the rule under BNSS Section 275?
(A) The Magistrate must frame a formal charge before acting upon the plea of guilty.
(B) The Magistrate shall record the plea as nearly as possible in the words used by the accused and may, in his discretion, convict him thereon.
(C) The Magistrate must compulsorily convict the accused once the words “I plead guilty” are spoken.
(D) The Magistrate must first record the evidence of all prosecution witnesses before considering the plea.
11. In a petty summons-case, the accused receives summons and wants to plead guilty without appearing. Which statement correctly states BNSS Section 276?
(A) He may transmit a letter containing his plea along with the fine specified in the summons, and the Magistrate may convict him in absence.
(B) He must appear personally because no plea of guilty can be accepted in his absence.
(C) Only the Public Prosecutor can submit the plea on his behalf.
(D) The Magistrate must sentence him to imprisonment if the plea is accepted in absence.
12. In a summons-case instituted otherwise than upon complaint, a Magistrate stops proceedings after evidence of the principal witnesses has been recorded. What is the legal effect?
(A) The accused is discharged, and fresh proceedings are barred only with sanction.
(B) The accused is released, and such release has the effect of discharge.
(C) The accused is neither acquitted nor discharged; proceedings remain suspended.
(D) A judgment of acquittal may be pronounced.
13. Consider the following statements on summary trials under BNSS:
I. Section 283 covers the power of any Chief Judicial Magistrate and Magistrate of the first class to try the listed offences summarily.
II. In summary trial, the procedure for warrant-cases is ordinarily followed.
III. No sentence of imprisonment exceeding three months can be passed in a conviction under summary trial.
IV. A Magistrate of the second class can try summarily only when empowered by the High Court and within the statutory limits.
Which option is correct?
(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) I, III and IV only
(D) I, II, III and IV
14. Which statement is correct regarding plea bargaining under BNSS Sections 289–300?
(A) It applies to every offence except those punishable with death.
(B) The accused may file an application within thirty days from framing of charge, accompanied by an affidavit of voluntariness and absence of previous conviction for the same offence.
(C) The Court examines the accused in open Court in the presence of the complainant to ensure transparency.
(D) Statements made in plea bargaining may be used in any later proceeding if the plea fails.
15. Consider the following statements under BSA Sections 101–103:
I. Evidence may be given to show the meaning of illegible, foreign, obsolete, technical, local or regional expressions and abbreviations.
II. A person who is not a party to a document, or his representative in interest, may give evidence of facts showing a contemporaneous agreement varying the terms of the document.
III. The provisions of the BSA chapter on exclusion of oral evidence by documentary evidence override the Indian Succession Act regarding construction of wills.
IV. Parties to a written document may freely prove an oral agreement contradicting its terms under Section 102.
Which option is correct?
(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) I, II and IV only
(D) I, III and IV only
16. Which combination best captures the statutory essence of partnership under Section 4 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932?
(A) Co-ownership, common residence, common investment and common family status.
(B) Registration, written deed, equal capital contribution and equal sharing of losses.
(C) Agreement, business, sharing of profits and business carried on by all or any acting for all.
(D) Common property, joint possession, common surname and mutual inheritance rights.
17. A lender receives 15% of the profits of a business as interest; a manager receives profit-linked remuneration; a deceased partner’s widow receives an annuity out of profits; and a previous owner receives profit-linked consideration for goodwill. Which statement is most accurate?
(A) All four are partners because each receives something linked with profits.
(B) Only the lender and previous owner are partners because their interest is commercial.
(C) Only the manager is a partner because he participates in business administration.
(D) None becomes a partner merely by such receipt, though the real relation may still be examined.
18. Which of the following best distinguishes partnership from a Hindu Undivided Family business?
(A) Partnership arises from status, whereas HUF arises from contract.
(B) Partnership arises from contract, whereas HUF business as such arises from status.
(C) Both partnership and HUF require a written agreement to carry on business.
(D) Mutual agency exists automatically among all coparceners in every HUF business.
19. X, Y and Z execute a document calling themselves “co-owners”, but they jointly carry on a trading business, share profits, and allow X to bind all in ordinary business dealings. How should the existence of partnership be determined?
(A) By examining the real relation between the parties from all relevant facts taken together.
(B) By treating the label “co-owners” as conclusive against partnership.
(C) By asking only whether they registered the firm under the Partnership Act.
(D) By checking whether losses were expressly mentioned in the document.
20. Which statement correctly states the role of profit sharing in determining partnership?
(A) Sharing of gross returns from jointly held property always creates partnership.
(B) Sharing of profits alone conclusively proves partnership in every case.
(C) Sharing of profits is relevant but not conclusive; mutual agency remains the crucial test.
(D) Receipt of profit-linked salary by an employee necessarily converts him into a partner.
21. Which distinction between partnership and company is most accurate?
(A) A firm is a separate legal person like a company, and partners are mere shareholders.
(B) In partnership, partners may be agents of the firm for business purposes; shareholders of a company are not agents merely by holding shares.
(C) A company can never own property in its own name, whereas a partnership firm always can.
(D) Partnership requires incorporation, while company formation requires only oral agreement.
22. Which statement best explains mutual agency in partnership?
(A) Every partner is agent only of himself and never of the firm.
(B) Every partner is agent of the firm for purposes of the business of the firm, subject to the Act.
(C) Mutual agency exists only when the partnership deed expressly uses the words “mutual agency”.
(D) Mutual agency is relevant only for sharing losses and not for binding the firm externally.
23. In absence of usage or custom of trade to the contrary, which set contains acts outside a partner’s implied authority under Section 19?
(A) Submitting firm dispute to arbitration; opening a banking account on behalf of the firm in his own name; compromising firm claim; entering into partnership on behalf of firm.
(B) Buying stock in ordinary course; selling stock in ordinary course; receiving payment; issuing ordinary trade receipts.
(C) Hiring routine staff; purchasing usual raw material; collecting ordinary debts; maintaining firm books.
(D) Taking emergency steps to protect firm property from immediate loss in ordinary prudence.
24. Partners restrict A’s authority not to purchase goods above ₹50,000. A nevertheless purchases goods worth ₹2,00,000 in the usual way of business from T, who neither knows of the restriction nor doubts A’s status as partner. Which statement is correct?
(A) The firm is not bound because internal restrictions always defeat third-party claims.
(B) The firm is not bound unless every partner separately ratifies the transaction in writing.
(C) The firm is bound if the act falls within implied authority and T had no knowledge of the restriction.
(D) The firm is bound only if the partnership deed was registered.
25. To bind a firm by an act or instrument, which requirement under Section 22 is most accurate?
(A) It must always be signed by all partners personally.
(B) It must be done or executed in the firm name or in a manner expressing or implying an intention to bind the firm.
(C) It must necessarily bear the seal of the Registrar of Firms.
(D) It must be preceded by a public notice to all third parties.
26. A partner, seeing firm goods about to be destroyed in a sudden flood, sells a portion below usual market rate to prevent total loss. Which statement is most accurate?
(A) The act can never bind the firm because it is outside ordinary business.
(B) The act binds the firm only if every partner had prior notice.
(C) The act is void unless recorded in the partnership deed.
(D) A partner has authority in emergency to do acts that an ordinarily prudent person would do to protect the firm from loss.
27. Subject to contract between partners, which of the following is correct?
(A) Partners share profits equally and contribute equally to losses; a partner is not entitled to remuneration merely for taking part in business.
(B) Partners share profits according to capital contribution, and losses are never shared unless agreed.
(C) Every partner is entitled to monthly salary for managing the firm unless expressly excluded.
(D) Interest on capital is payable even when there are no profits.
28. Which statement regarding a minor and partnership is correct?
(A) A minor may be full partner if his guardian signs the partnership deed.
(B) A minor cannot even be admitted to benefits of partnership.
(C) A minor cannot be a partner but may be admitted to benefits of partnership with consent of all partners.
(D) A minor admitted to benefits is personally liable for all acts of the firm.
29. Which statement correctly distinguishes “particular partnership” and “partnership at will”?
(A) A particular partnership is always illegal unless registered, while partnership at will is always oral.
(B) A person may become partner for particular adventures or undertakings; partnership at will exists when no provision is made for duration or determination.
(C) Particular partnership must be permanent, while partnership at will must have a fixed term.
(D) Both are identical because the Act makes no distinction between them.
30. Four persons jointly own a warehouse and share rent. They do not carry on business, do not represent each other, and no one can bind the others in dealings. Which statement is correct?
(A) They are partners because they share income from property.
(B) They are partners because co-ownership is enough to create partnership.
(C) They are partners only if the warehouse is immovable property.
(D) They are not partners merely by sharing returns from jointly held property without business and mutual agency.
31. Which mineral belt is most appropriately described as India’s richest mineral belt, containing important deposits of coal, iron ore, manganese and mica, and supporting iron-steel and heavy industries?
(A) Himalayan mineral belt
(B) Western coastal belt
(C) North-Eastern Plateau / Chota Nagpur belt
(D) Northern alluvial plain belt
32. Which statement best explains why early iron and steel plants in eastern India were concentrated around the Chota Nagpur region?
(A) Proximity to coal, iron ore, water, transport routes and labour created strong locational advantages.
(B) The region had the most cotton-growing black soil and highest port-based textile demand.
(C) The region was selected mainly because petroleum refineries were concentrated there.
(D) The region had no mineral advantage but only extreme population density.
33. Consider the following pairs:
I. Hooghly industrial region — Jute industry
II. Mumbai-Pune region — Cotton textiles and diversified industries
III. Chota Nagpur region — Iron and steel industries
IV. Bengaluru-Chennai region — Engineering, IT and automobile-linked industries
Which pairs are correctly matched?
(A) I and II only
(B) II and IV only
(C) I, III and IV only
(D) I, II, III and IV
34. Which one of the following is NOT correct with reference to final Census 2011 basics?
(A) India’s population density was 382 persons per sq. km.
(B) India’s final all-India sex ratio was 940 females per 1000 males.
(C) India’s literacy rate was about 74.04 percent.
(D) India’s total population was about 1210.85 million.
35. Which statement best distinguishes mineral-based industries from footloose industries?
(A) Mineral-based industries are always located only in coastal cities.
(B) Mineral-based industries never require transport because raw materials are weightless.
(C) Mineral-based industries generally prefer proximity to bulky raw materials, power and transport, while footloose industries are less tied to raw material location.
(D) Footloose industries can operate only where coal and iron ore occur together.
36. Which statement is most appropriate regarding Census basics for an exam answer in June 2026?
(A) Census is normally a decennial exercise; Census 2011 remains the latest completed all-India population enumeration, while Census 2027 has been notified but its population enumeration is not yet complete.
(B) Census is conducted every five years and 2021 final population data is already the official benchmark.
(C) Census is conducted by the Election Commission because it determines electoral rolls.
(D) Census records only population totals and does not collect household or demographic information.
37. Which statement is most appropriate regarding minerals and population distribution?
(A) Mineral regions automatically become densely populated even if terrain, water and transport are unfavourable.
(B) Minerals have no role in industrial location once railway transport exists.
(C) Population distribution depends only on climate, not on industries or mineral resources.
(D) Mineral availability may attract industries and settlements, but population concentration also depends on transport, water, employment, terrain and historical factors.
38. Statements:
All census tables are data.
Some data are provisional.
No provisional data are final.
Conclusions:
I. Some data are not final.
II. Some census tables are provisional.
III. No final data are provisional.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) I only
(B) I and III only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III
39. Statements:
Some coal mines are mined minerals.
All coal mines are solid-fuel sources.
No petroleum source is a coal mine.
Conclusions:
I. Some solid-fuel sources are coal mines.
II. Some solid-fuel sources are not petroleum sources.
III. No mined mineral is a petroleum source.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I, II and III
40. Statements:
All steel plants are industries.
Some industries are mineral-based units.
No mineral-based unit is footloose.
Conclusions:
I. Some industries are not footloose.
II. No steel plant is footloose.
III. Some steel plants are definitely mineral-based units.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
41. Statements:
All densely populated districts are urbanised districts.
Some urbanised districts are industrial districts.
No industrial district is backward.
Conclusions:
I. Some urbanised districts are not backward.
II. All densely populated districts are backward.
III. Some industrial districts are densely populated districts.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) II only
(B) III only
(C) II and III only
(D) I only
42. Statements:
Some maps are thematic maps.
All thematic maps are useful maps.
No useful map is inaccurate.
Conclusions:
I. Some maps are not inaccurate.
II. No thematic map is inaccurate.
III. Some useful maps are maps.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) I and II only
(B) I, II and III
(C) II and III only
(D) I only
43. Statements:
No census record is speculative.
All provisional tables are census records.
Some provisional tables are digital records.
Conclusions:
I. No provisional table is speculative.
II. Some digital records are not speculative.
III. No digital record is a census record.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) I only
(D) I, II and III
44. Statements:
All bauxite mines are open-cast mines.
Some open-cast mines are hazardous sites.
No hazardous site is unregulated.
Conclusions:
I. Some open-cast mines are not unregulated.
II. All bauxite mines are hazardous sites.
III. Some bauxite mines are unregulated.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) II only
(B) III only
(C) I only
(D) I and III only
45. Statements:
Some industries are large-scale units.
All large-scale units require capital.
Some capital-requiring units are not labour-intensive.
Conclusions:
I. Some industries require capital.
II. Some industries are not labour-intensive.
III. All labour-intensive units are industries.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) II only
(B) III only
(C) II and III only
(D) I only
ANSWERS WITH ONE-LINER EXPLANATIONS
1. B — BNS Section 256 directly covers incorrect record or writing by a public servant with intent to save a person from punishment or property from forfeiture.
2. D — Section 257 covers corrupt or malicious judicial report, order, verdict or decision contrary to law and permits fine also.
3. C — Section 258 punishes unlawful commitment for trial or confinement by a person having legal authority, up to seven years.
4. A — Section 259 applies to intentional omission to apprehend a person charged with or liable to be apprehended for a death-punishable offence.
5. B — Section 261 covers negligent escape suffered by a public servant; Section 262 covers resistance to own lawful apprehension; Section 267 covers insult/interruption in judicial proceeding; Section 269 covers failure to appear after release on bail bond or bond.
6. C — Rescue of another person liable for a death-punishable offence falls under the aggravated clause of Section 263.
7. D — Sections 264 and 265 are residual provisions with separate punishment for intentional, negligent and obstruction cases.
8. A — Section 266 restores liability to the original punishment or the remaining unserved part after breach of remission condition.
9. C — Under Section 269, sufficient cause must be proved by the accused, and punishment is without prejudice to forfeiture of bond.
10. B — Under BNSS Section 275, the Magistrate records the guilty plea nearly in the accused’s own words and may convict in discretion.
11. A — BNSS Section 276 permits plea of guilty in absence in petty cases through letter and fine or through an authorised advocate.
12. D — Under BNSS Section 281, stoppage after evidence of principal witnesses permits a judgment of acquittal.
13. C — Summary trials follow summons-case procedure, have a three-month imprisonment ceiling, and second-class Magistrates need High Court empowerment.
14. B — Plea bargaining must be by the accused within thirty days from charge, supported by voluntariness affidavit and absence of previous conviction for the same offence.
15. A — BSA Sections 101 and 102 allow explanation of special language and third-party proof of varying contemporaneous agreement; Section 103 saves the Succession Act provisions on wills.
16. C — Section 4 requires agreement, business, profit sharing and mutual agency through “all or any acting for all.”
17. D — Profit-linked receipt by lender, employee, widow or previous owner does not by itself create partnership.
18. B — Partnership is contractual; HUF business arises from status, not from contractual mutual agency.
19. A — Section 6 requires the real relation to be determined from all relevant facts together.
20. C — Profit sharing is relevant but not conclusive; mutual agency remains the crucial test.
21. B — Partners may bind the firm through agency; shareholders are not company agents merely by holding shares.
22. B — Section 18 makes a partner agent of the firm for purposes of firm business.
23. A — Arbitration, own-name bank account on behalf of firm, compromise of firm claim and entering into partnership are outside implied authority absent usage or custom.
24. C — Internal restriction does not defeat a third party without knowledge where the act is otherwise within implied authority.
25. B — Section 22 requires firm name or a manner showing intention to bind the firm.
26. D — Section 21 permits emergency authority to protect the firm from loss using ordinary prudence.
27. A — Absent contract, equal profits/losses apply and no remuneration is payable merely for taking part in business.
28. C — A minor cannot be a full partner but may be admitted to benefits with consent of all partners.
29. B — Particular partnership is for specific ventures; partnership at will has no fixed duration or determination clause.
30. D — Co-ownership and shared returns alone do not create partnership without business and mutual agency.
31. C — The Chota Nagpur/North-Eastern Plateau belt is the classic mineral-rich belt.
32. A — Coal, iron ore, water, labour and transport explain the location of early eastern steel plants.
33. D — All four industrial region matches are standard geography pairings.
34. B — The final all-India sex ratio under Census 2011 is 943 females per 1000 males, not 940.
35. C — Mineral-based industries are raw-material and power sensitive; footloose industries are less location-bound.
36. A — Census is normally decennial; as of June 2026, Census 2011 remains the latest completed population enumeration, while Census 2027 has been notified but population enumeration is not complete.
37. D — Minerals may attract industries, but population concentration depends on multiple geographic and economic factors.
38. B — Some provisional data are data and are not final; “No provisional data are final” also converts to “No final data are provisional.”
39. C — Some coal mines are solid-fuel sources and, because no petroleum source is a coal mine, some solid-fuel sources are not petroleum sources.
40. A — Some mineral-based units are industries and are not footloose; nothing definite follows about steel plants.
41. D — Some urbanised districts are industrial and therefore not backward.
42. B — The chain “some maps → thematic maps → useful maps → not inaccurate” supports all three conclusions.
43. A — All provisional tables are non-speculative census records, and some digital records are such provisional tables.
44. C — Some open-cast mines are hazardous and hence not unregulated; nothing follows about all bauxite mines.
45. D — Some industries are large-scale and all large-scale units require capital; the other conclusions do not follow.