1. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, while interpreting a penal provision which defines an offence without expressly repeating the words “subject to general exceptions”, which of the following propositions is most accurate?
(1) The general exceptions are to be read as applicable to offence-defining provisions, unless excluded by the statute.
(2) A fact situation falling under a general exception may prevent the act from becoming an offence.
(3) A general exception can never apply unless it is expressly repeated in the very section creating the offence.
(4) Illustrations and offence definitions are also to be understood in light of the general explanations and exceptions.
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. A Judge passes an order of attachment while acting judicially and honestly believing that he has jurisdiction. A court officer thereafter executes that order while it remains in force, although it is later found that the court lacked jurisdiction. Which statement best reflects the protection available under the BNS?
(A) The Judge alone is protected; the executing officer is liable because jurisdiction was actually absent.
(B) Both may be protected, provided the Judge acted judicially in good faith and the officer in good faith believed the court had jurisdiction.
(C) Neither is protected, because absence of jurisdiction retrospectively makes every act illegal.
(D) Only the executing officer is protected, because judicial officers never receive protection for jurisdictional mistakes.
3. During trial, the court finds that the accused certainly committed one out of two offences, but it remains doubtful which of the two he committed. Offence X carries imprisonment up to seven years, while Offence Y carries imprisonment up to three years. The judgment records this doubt. What is the legally correct sentencing consequence?
(A) The accused must be acquitted because the exact offence is not identified.
(B) The court may impose the punishment prescribed for the graver offence, because guilt is otherwise proved.
(C) The accused cannot be punished more severely than the offence carrying the lowest punishment.
(D) The court must refer the matter to the High Court before passing any sentence.
4. A doctor, in good faith and for the patient’s benefit, communicates to a patient that his condition is extremely critical. The patient dies of shock upon hearing the information. Separately, X slightly pushes Y aside in a crowded passage, causing trivial discomfort which no person of ordinary sense would complain of. Which option correctly applies the BNS exceptions?
(A) Both acts are offences, because actual harm resulted in each case.
(B) The doctor’s act may be protected as good-faith communication, and X’s act may fall under the rule relating to slight harm.
(C) The doctor is liable for causing death, but X is protected because his act was accidental.
(D) X is liable for assault, but the doctor is protected only if the patient had given written consent.
5. With respect to the commencement and continuance of the right of private defence under the BNS, consider the following statements:
(1) The right of private defence of the body may commence before actual physical injury, once reasonable apprehension of danger arises.
(2) The right of private defence of the body continues only so long as such apprehension continues.
(3) In robbery, the right of private defence of property may continue while the offender causes or attempts to cause death, hurt, wrongful restraint, or fear thereof.
(4) In criminal trespass, the right of private defence of property continues even after the trespasser has completely left and no threat remains.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
6. Under the BNSS, a State Government wants to declare an urban area as a “metropolitan area”. The latest published census shows the population to be slightly above ten lakh. Which statement is most accurate?
(A) It cannot be declared metropolitan unless the population exceeds twenty lakh.
(B) It may be declared metropolitan if the statutory population requirement is satisfied and notification is issued by the State Government.
(C) It automatically becomes metropolitan without any notification once the population crosses ten lakh.
(D) Only the High Court can declare an area to be metropolitan.
7. Which of the following statements correctly reflects the scheme relating to establishment and control of Judicial Magistrates under the BNSS?
(1) Courts of Judicial Magistrates are established by the State Government after consultation with the High Court.
(2) Presiding officers of such courts are appointed by the High Court.
(3) Local limits of jurisdiction may be defined subject to the control of the High Court.
(4) Executive Magistrates may override the jurisdiction of Judicial Magistrates in criminal trials.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
8. A State Government appoints certain officers as Special Executive Magistrates for a large religious fair, conferring limited powers for maintaining order within the fair area for a specified period. Which proposition is correct under the BNSS?
(A) Such appointment is impermissible because Executive Magistrates can never be appointed for specific functions.
(B) Special Executive Magistrates can be appointed for particular areas or particular functions, subject to the statutory scheme.
(C) Such officers automatically become Judicial Magistrates for trial of offences arising during the fair.
(D) Such appointment can be made only by the Chief Judicial Magistrate.
9. Regarding sentencing powers of criminal courts under the BNSS, which of the following is correct?
(1) A High Court may pass any sentence authorised by law.
(2) A Sessions Judge or Additional Sessions Judge may pass any sentence authorised by law, but a sentence of death requires confirmation by the High Court.
(3) An Assistant Sessions Judge cannot pass a sentence of death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment exceeding ten years.
(4) A Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a sentence of imprisonment for life if the offence is serious.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
10. An accused is convicted at one trial of three distinct offences. The court directs separate sentences to run consecutively. Which statement best reflects the BNSS position?
(A) Consecutive sentences are completely barred in a single trial.
(B) Consecutive sentencing is permissible, subject to statutory limitations on the aggregate punishment.
(C) Consecutive sentencing requires a separate trial for each offence.
(D) Consecutive sentences may be passed only by the High Court and never by a Magistrate.
11. In a cyber-fraud prosecution, the prosecution seeks to prove that an OTP interception, immediate unauthorised login, transfer of funds, and a message sent by the accused saying “done” during the transfer formed part of one continuous operation, though they occurred at different physical locations. Under the BSA, which principle is most directly attracted?
(A) Facts forming part of the same transaction may be relevant even if occurring at different places or times.
(B) Only facts occurring at the exact place of occurrence are relevant.
(C) Electronic facts are irrelevant unless admitted by the accused.
(D) The message is relevant only if it amounts to a confession.
12. In a civil-criminal dispute concerning forged sale papers, the prosecution seeks to prove the history of possession, earlier title documents, survey-number changes, and relationship between the parties to explain how the disputed document came into existence. Which statement is correct under the BSA?
(A) Such facts may be relevant if they are necessary to introduce or explain facts in issue or relevant facts.
(B) Such facts are inadmissible because they do not directly prove forgery.
(C) Such facts are relevant only in civil proceedings and never in criminal proceedings.
(D) Such facts are relevant only if they amount to admissions.
13. A conspiracy is alleged between A, B and C to manipulate tender documents. The prosecution seeks to rely upon:
(1) A message sent before any agreement was formed.
(2) A message sent by B to C during the conspiracy, instructing concealment of documents.
(3) A statement made by A after the tender manipulation was completed and the conspirators had dispersed.
(4) An act done by C during the existence of the common design to secure payment.
Which is the most accurate position under the BSA?
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are all relevant as conspiracy evidence.
(B) 2 and 4 are relevant if made or done in reference to the common design; 1 and 3 are not automatically covered.
(C) Only 1 is relevant because it shows preparation.
(D) Only 3 is relevant because it is subsequent conduct.
14. The question is whether A knowingly possessed counterfeit government-stamp papers. The prosecution proves that, around the same time, A possessed several other stamp papers bearing the same false mark, and had earlier described such papers as “safe copies”. Which BSA principle is most directly involved?
(A) Facts showing state of mind, knowledge or intention may become relevant when such mental element is in issue.
(B) All previous conduct is irrelevant unless it is a confession.
(C) Such facts are relevant only to prove bad character.
(D) Such facts are inadmissible because they relate to other papers, not the paper in charge.
15. In a suit involving a claimed customary right of way and compensation for obstruction, the party claiming the right seeks to prove earlier instances where villagers used the pathway, old revenue references recognising the path, prior disputes asserting the right, and expenses incurred due to obstruction. Which statement is most accurate under the BSA?
(A) The earlier instances and assertions may be relevant to the existence of the right or custom, and the expenses may be relevant to damages.
(B) Only the latest act of obstruction is relevant; past assertions of right are always inadmissible.
(C) Custom can be proved only by direct statutory notification and never by instances.
(D) Damages cannot be proved through surrounding facts or consequences.
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SECTION B: CPC — INSTITUTION OF SUIT, PLAINT, CAUSE OF ACTION, PARTIES AND FRAME OF SUIT
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16. A plaintiff files a suit seeking recovery of money on the basis of three separate loan transactions between the same parties, but deliberately omits one matured loan claim without obtaining leave of the court, intending to file a separate suit later. Which statement most accurately reflects the CPC position?
(A) The later suit is maintainable because each loan transaction gives a separate cause of action.
(B) The omitted claim may be barred if it formed part of the same cause of action and was intentionally relinquished or omitted without leave.
(C) The later suit is maintainable as long as limitation has not expired.
(D) The bar applies only to immovable property suits and not to money claims.
17. A plaint states that the defendant “acted illegally and caused loss”, but does not disclose the material facts showing how the legal right of the plaintiff was violated, when the cause of action arose, or what duty was breached. Which is the most appropriate consequence?
(A) The plaint may be rejected if it does not disclose a cause of action.
(B) The suit must proceed because evidence can always cure absence of pleadings.
(C) The plaint can never be rejected at the initial stage.
(D) The plaintiff is entitled to prove a completely new cause of action during trial.
18. In a suit for declaration of title and possession, the plaintiff impleads only a tenant in possession and deliberately omits the person who claims ownership under a registered sale deed and whose title is directly challenged. Which principle is most relevant?
(A) Misjoinder of parties always results in automatic dismissal.
(B) The suit may suffer from non-joinder of a necessary party if effective and complete adjudication is impossible in that person’s absence.
(C) The court must ignore all questions of parties until final arguments.
(D) A person claiming title can never be added unless the plaintiff agrees.
19. A plaintiff combines in one suit: recovery of rent from a tenant, damages for injury to an unrelated vehicle caused by the same tenant two years earlier, and declaration of ownership over ancestral property against different defendants. No common question of law or fact substantially connects these claims. Which CPC principle is most clearly attracted?
(A) Proper joinder of causes of action, because the plaintiff is common.
(B) Misjoinder of causes of action and parties may arise where unrelated claims against different defendants are improperly clubbed.
(C) The suit is valid because every civil dispute can be combined to avoid multiplicity.
(D) Such joinder is compulsory under CPC.
20. A suit is instituted by presentation of a plaint before a competent court. However, the plaint is not accompanied by essential particulars required to show jurisdiction and valuation. Which statement is most accurate?
(A) A plaint must contain facts showing jurisdiction and valuation; absence of such material particulars may invite objection or rejection, depending on defect.
(B) Jurisdiction is never required to be pleaded in the plaint.
(C) Valuation becomes relevant only after decree.
(D) Defect in jurisdictional pleading cannot be considered by the court at any stage.
21. A plaintiff sues for injunction against continuing encroachment on his land but omits the consequential relief of possession, though on his own pleading he is already dispossessed. Later, he files a separate suit for possession on the same factual foundation. Which is the most legally sound answer?
(A) The second suit is always maintainable because possession is a higher relief.
(B) The second suit may face objection under the rule against splitting claims arising from the same cause of action.
(C) The first suit automatically converts into a possession suit.
(D) The plaintiff can split reliefs as a matter of right without leave of court.
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SECTION C: CURRENT AFFAIRS — NATIONAL APPOINTMENTS AND CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES
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22. The Sixteenth Finance Commission is relevant to Centre–State fiscal relations. Which of the following combinations is correct?
(A) Chairman — N. K. Singh; Constitutional basis — Article 324
(B) Chairman — Arvind Panagariya; Constitutional basis — Article 280
(C) Chairman — Bibek Debroy; Constitutional basis — Article 338
(D) Chairman — Raghuram Rajan; Constitutional basis — Article 312
23. Which statement correctly describes the present leadership and legal character of the National Human Rights Commission of India?
(A) It is a constitutional body under Article 338, chaired by Justice V. Ramasubramanian
(B) It is a statutory body under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, chaired by Justice V. Ramasubramanian
(C) It is a statutory body under the RTI Act, 2005, chaired by Raj Kumar Goyal
(D) It is a constitutional body under Article 280, chaired by Arvind Panagariya
24. In December 2025, Raj Kumar Goyal became associated with which national institution and in what capacity?
(A) Central Vigilance Commission — Central Vigilance Commissioner
(B) Central Information Commission — Chief Information Commissioner
(C) National Human Rights Commission — Chairperson
(D) Sixteenth Finance Commission — Member Secretary
25. Which of the following is correctly matched regarding the Central Vigilance Commission in 2026?
(A) Praveen Vashista — Vigilance Commissioner; appointed under the CVC Act, 2003
(B) Raj Kumar Goyal — Central Vigilance Commissioner; appointed under the RTI Act, 2005
(C) Arvind Panagariya — Vigilance Commissioner; appointed under Article 280
(D) Justice V. Ramasubramanian — Central Vigilance Commissioner; appointed under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
26. Consider the following statements:
- The Finance Commission is a constitutional body connected with fiscal federalism.
- The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body, not a constitutional body.
- The Central Information Commission is associated with the Right to Information Act, 2005.
- The Central Vigilance Commission is concerned with vigilance and anti-corruption oversight in public administration.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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SECTION D: HARYANA GK — FORMATION AND BASIC FACTS
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27. Haryana was carved out as a separate State mainly on the basis of linguistic reorganisation. Which statement is correct?
(A) Haryana was formed on 15 August 1947 as a Union Territory.
(B) Haryana was formed on 1 November 1966 under the Punjab Reorganisation process.
(C) Haryana was formed in 1975 after the Emergency proclamation.
(D) Haryana was originally carved out of Rajasthan.
28. Which of the following correctly describes Chandigarh in the context of Haryana’s formation?
(A) Chandigarh became an exclusive part of Haryana.
(B) Chandigarh became an exclusive part of Punjab.
(C) Chandigarh was made a Union Territory and joint capital of Punjab and Haryana.
(D) Chandigarh was merged with Himachal Pradesh.
29. Consider the following statements about Haryana:
(1) Haryana emerged as a separate State on 1 November 1966.
(2) It was carved out of the former Punjab region.
(3) Chandigarh has a special status as Union Territory and joint capital.
(4) Haryana was formed primarily by merging areas from Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
30. Which of the following is the most accurate basic factual combination regarding Haryana?
(A) Formation: 1 November 1966; Capital: Chandigarh; Origin: Reorganisation of Punjab
(B) Formation: 26 January 1950; Capital: Gurugram; Origin: Reorganisation of Delhi
(C) Formation: 1 May 1960; Capital: Rohtak; Origin: Reorganisation of Rajasthan
(D) Formation: 15 August 1947; Capital: Hisar; Origin: British Punjab Province as a separate Dominion
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ANSWER KEY
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1. A — General exceptions are read with offence definitions unless excluded; they need not be repeated in every penal section.
2. B — Judicial acts done in good faith and acts done pursuant to a court order may receive protection where the statutory conditions are satisfied.
3. C — Where it is doubtful which of several offences was committed, punishment cannot exceed the lowest punishment among them.
4. B — Good-faith communication for benefit and slight harm are separate BNS exceptions protecting different kinds of acts.
5. A — Private defence begins and continues with reasonable apprehension; it does not survive after the threat has completely ended.
6. B — A metropolitan area requires satisfaction of the population condition and declaration by State notification.
7. A — Judicial Magistrate courts involve State establishment after High Court consultation, High Court appointment, and High Court-controlled jurisdictional limits.
8. B — Special Executive Magistrates may be appointed for specified areas or functions under the BNSS framework.
9. A — High Court, Sessions Judge, Additional Sessions Judge and Assistant Sessions Judge have distinct sentencing limits; CJM cannot award life imprisonment.
10. B — Consecutive sentences at one trial are permitted, but the aggregate punishment is controlled by statutory limits.
11. A — Same transaction may include connected acts occurring across different places or intervals.
12. A — Facts explaining, introducing or connecting facts in issue or relevant facts may themselves become relevant.
13. B — Conspiracy relevance is confined to acts/statements made in reference to the common design while it exists.
14. A — When knowledge or intention is in issue, connected facts showing that state of mind may become relevant.
15. A — Facts showing existence of a right/custom and facts helping quantify damages are relevant under the BSA.
16. B — Order II CPC discourages splitting of claims arising from the same cause of action without leave.
17. A — A plaint which does not disclose a cause of action may be rejected under Order VII Rule 11.
18. B — A necessary party is one without whom no effective and complete decree can be passed.
19. B — Joinder is not unlimited; unrelated claims against different defendants may create misjoinder.
20. A — The plaint must disclose jurisdictional facts and proper valuation for court-fee and jurisdiction.
21. B — A plaintiff cannot ordinarily split reliefs arising from the same cause of action without leave.
22. B — The Sixteenth Finance Commission is chaired by Arvind Panagariya and Finance Commission is constituted under Article 280.
23. B — NHRC is a statutory body under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, and Justice V. Ramasubramanian is its Chairperson.
24. B — Raj Kumar Goyal is listed as the Chief Information Commissioner in the Central Information Commission.
25. A — Praveen Vashista was appointed as Vigilance Commissioner in the Central Vigilance Commission under the CVC Act, 2003.
26. D — All four statements correctly distinguish constitutional/statutory bodies and their basic functions.
27. B — Haryana came into existence on 1 November 1966 through the Punjab Reorganisation process.
28. C — Chandigarh is a Union Territory and joint capital of Punjab and Haryana.
29. A — Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct; Haryana was not formed by merging U.P. and Rajasthan areas.
30. A — Haryana was formed on 1 November 1966, with Chandigarh as capital, from the reorganisation of Punjab.