1. A instigates B to cause grievous hurt to Z. B, however, attacks Z with an intention to cause death and kills him. A neither intended death nor knew death to be likely from the act instigated. Consider the following statements:
1. A is not automatically punishable for murder merely because B committed murder.
2. B’s liability will be determined according to B’s own intention or knowledge.
3. A’s liability is determined with reference to the offence which would have been committed if the act had been done with A’s intention or knowledge.
4. The different intention or knowledge of the person abetted is legally irrelevant for all purposes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. A instigates B to administer a drug to Z intending only to cause temporary unconsciousness. A knows that the drug is likely to cause death because Z is medically fragile. B administers the drug and Z dies. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. A may be liable for the effect caused if he knew that the act abetted was likely to cause that effect.
2. Liability may arise even though the precise effect caused was not the effect intended by A.
3. A is liable in the same manner and to the same extent as if he had abetted the act with the intention of causing that effect.
Select the correct answer:
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 3 only
3. X publicly circulates an encrypted message asking members of a group of 15 persons to assemble and attack a rival group during a procession. The attack is not actually committed. Which of the following statements is/are correct under the BNS?
1. Abetment of an offence by a number or class of persons exceeding ten is specifically punishable.
2. The offence is attracted only when the unlawful attack is actually committed.
3. The punishment may extend to seven years and fine.
4. A class consisting exactly of ten persons is sufficient for this provision.
Select the correct answer:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 3 and 4 only
4. Consider the following statements regarding concealment of design under BNS:
1. Concealment of design to commit an offence punishable with death or life imprisonment may include concealment by use of encryption or other information-hiding tools.
2. A public servant who conceals a design to commit an offence which it is his duty to prevent is dealt with more severely than an ordinary person.
3. For concealment of design to commit an offence punishable with imprisonment, punishment differs depending on whether the offence is committed or not.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
5. With reference to criminal conspiracy and attempt under BNS, consider the following statements:
1. An agreement to commit an offence may amount to criminal conspiracy even without proof of an overt act.
2. Where the agreement is not to commit an offence but to do a legal act by illegal means, an overt act in pursuance of the agreement is necessary.
3. A conspiracy to commit an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or rigorous imprisonment of two years or more may be punished as abetment where no express punishment exists.
4. Attempt requires an act towards commission of the offence and may attract punishment up to one-half of the longest imprisonment provided for that offence.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
6. Consider the following statements under BNSS provisions dealing with public duty to give information:
1. Every person aware of the commission of, or intention to commit, specified serious offences must give information to the nearest Magistrate or police officer unless he has reasonable excuse.
2. The burden of proving reasonable excuse lies upon the person who was aware of such commission or intention.
3. For this purpose, “offence” may include an act committed outside India which would constitute an offence if committed in India.
4. A village resident is bound to report every cognizable offence committed anywhere in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
7. P commits a non-cognizable offence in the presence of a police officer but refuses to disclose his name and residence. Which one of the following is the most accurate position under BNSS?
(A) P may be arrested only for ascertaining his name and residence, and after true particulars are ascertained he shall ordinarily be released on bond or bail bond.
(B) P cannot be arrested at all because the offence is non-cognizable.
(C) P may be detained indefinitely until the police complete investigation.
(D) P must be produced before the Sessions Court within forty-eight hours.
8. With respect to protection of members of the Armed Forces from arrest under BNSS, consider the following statements:
1. Protection applies where the act was done or purported to be done in discharge of official duties.
2. Arrest in such cases requires consent of the Central Government.
3. The protection automatically applies to every private act of an Armed Forces member.
4. The State Government may, by notification, extend similar protection to certain forces charged with maintenance of public order.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
9. A police officer lawfully pursuing an accused believes that the accused has entered a house. A woman, not being the accused, occupies a separate inner apartment and according to custom does not appear in public. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The person in charge of the place must allow free ingress and reasonable facilities for search.
2. The officer may break open the apartment without notice merely because an accused is suspected to be inside.
3. Before entering the female-occupied apartment, notice and reasonable facility to withdraw must be given.
4. A person lawfully entered for arrest and detained inside may break open doors to liberate himself or another.
Select the correct answer:
(A) 1, 3 and 4 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
10. Consider the following statements regarding medical examination and identification under BNSS:
1. Examination of an accused may include blood, semen, hair samples, nail clippings and DNA profiling where necessary.
2. In rape or attempted rape cases, the medical report of the accused must include material taken for DNA profiling and reasons for conclusions.
3. Every arrested person must be medically examined soon after arrest, and a copy of the report must be furnished to the arrested person or his nominee.
4. Where the identifying witness is mentally or physically disabled, identification must be supervised by a Magistrate and recorded by audio-video electronic means.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
11. Consider the following statements relating to arrest procedure under BNSS:
1. Where a superior officer deputes a subordinate to arrest without warrant, the order must be in writing and specify the person and cause of arrest.
2. The subordinate officer must notify the substance of the written order before arrest and show the order if required.
3. A person arrested by a police officer cannot be discharged except on bond, bail bond or special order of a Magistrate.
4. If a person in lawful custody escapes, immediate pursuit and arrest may be made in any place in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
12. Under the BSA, an admission may be proved by or on behalf of the person making it in which of the following situations?
1. When it would be relevant between third persons if the maker were dead.
2. When it relates to the existence of a state of mind or body made at or about the time such state existed and is accompanied by conduct making falsehood improbable.
3. When it is relevant otherwise than as an admission.
4. Whenever the maker wants to rely upon his own earlier self-serving statement.
Select the correct answer:
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
13. Consider the following statements under BSA provisions relating to admissions and confessions:
1. Oral admissions as to contents of a document are generally irrelevant unless secondary evidence of contents is permissible or genuineness of the produced document is in question.
2. In civil cases, an admission made on an express condition that evidence of it shall not be given is still always relevant.
3. A confession caused by inducement, threat, coercion or promise from a person in authority may become irrelevant if it gives reasonable ground to suppose temporal advantage or avoidance of evil.
4. Such confession may become relevant if the impression caused by inducement, threat, coercion or promise has been fully removed.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1, 3 and 4 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
14. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List I List II
A. Section 20 BSA 1. Oral admissions as to contents of documents
B. Section 21 BSA 2. Admissions in civil cases when relevant
C. Section 22 BSA 3. Confession caused by inducement, threat, coercion or promise
D. Section 23 BSA 4. Confession to police officer
Code:
(A) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(B) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(C) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(D) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
15. X, accused of murder, makes a statement to the police while in custody: “I threw the weapon into the old well behind the temple.” The weapon is recovered from that well. Consider the following statements:
1. A confession made to a police officer cannot be proved as a confession against the accused.
2. A confession made in police custody may be proved if made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate.
3. So much of the information as distinctly relates to the fact discovered may be proved.
4. An otherwise relevant confession becomes irrelevant merely because it was made in answer to questions which the accused need not have answered.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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PART II: CPC + GENERAL STUDIES + REASONING
Questions 16–30
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CPC: SUMMONS, APPEARANCE, NON-APPEARANCE, EX PARTE, DEFAULT
16. In a civil suit, the defendant was served with summons, but the court found that although service was technically complete, the defendant had not been given sufficient time to appear and answer the claim. What is the proper course under CPC?
(A) Immediately proceed ex parte against the defendant
(B) Dismiss the suit for default of appearance
(C) Postpone the hearing to a future date
(D) Reject the plaint under Order VII Rule 11
17. If summons is not served upon the defendant because the plaintiff fails to pay the required court fee or postal charges for service of summons, the court may:
(A) Decree the suit ex parte
(B) Dismiss the suit
(C) Strike off the defence of the defendant
(D) Return the plaint for presentation to proper court
18. Where the defendant appears on the day fixed but the plaintiff does not appear, and the defendant does not admit the plaintiff’s claim wholly or partly, the court shall generally:
(A) Adjourn the matter automatically
(B) Pass an ex parte decree in favour of the plaintiff
(C) Dismiss the suit
(D) Frame issues and proceed to trial
19. A defendant against whom an ex parte decree has been passed wants to get it set aside. Which ground is most legally relevant under Order IX Rule 13 CPC?
(A) The defendant believes the decree is harsh on merits
(B) The defendant was not duly served with summons or was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing
(C) The plaintiff’s pleadings were lengthy and technical
(D) The defendant wants to file a counter-claim after decree
20. If both the plaintiff and defendant fail to appear when the suit is called for hearing, the court may:
(A) Dismiss the suit under Order IX
(B) Decide the suit on merits after recording evidence
(C) Compulsorily refer the matter to arbitration
(D) Reject the written statement of the defendant
PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY OF INDIA
21. The Himalayan mountain system is geologically young and unstable primarily because:
(A) It was formed due to volcanic activity along the eastern coast
(B) It represents an old block mountain formed before the Gondwana period
(C) It was formed by the continuing collision of the Indian Plate with the Eurasian Plate
(D) It is composed entirely of basaltic lava flows
22. Which of the following correctly arranges the major Himalayan ranges from north to south?
(A) Himadri – Himachal – Shiwalik
(B) Shiwalik – Himachal – Himadri
(C) Himachal – Shiwalik – Himadri
(D) Himadri – Shiwalik – Himachal
23. The Northern Plains of India are considered agriculturally very fertile mainly because they are:
(A) Covered by black cotton soil formed from lava
(B) Composed of deep alluvial deposits brought by Himalayan and Peninsular rivers
(C) Made of laterite soil caused by heavy leaching
(D) Located entirely in the rain-shadow region
24. The Deccan Plateau is different from the Northern Plains because it is mainly:
(A) A young depositional plain formed by river-borne alluvium
(B) A low-lying deltaic region formed by tidal action
(C) An old, stable, hard-rock plateau with igneous and metamorphic formations
(D) A marshy region formed by Himalayan glaciers
25. Which statement about the Indian coastal plains is most accurate?
(A) The Western Coastal Plain is generally narrower than the Eastern Coastal Plain
(B) The Eastern Coastal Plain has no deltas
(C) The Western Coastal Plain is entirely desert
(D) The Eastern Coastal Plain is formed only by volcanic rocks
REASONING: NUMBER SERIES AND ALPHABET SERIES
26. Find the missing number in the series:
7, 16, 34, 70, 142, ?
(A) 286
(B) 284
(C) 288
(D) 290
27. Find the missing number:
5, 11, 23, 47, 95, ?
(A) 181
(B) 189
(C) 191
(D) 193
28. Complete the alphabet series:
B, E, J, Q, Z, ?
(A) I
(B) K
(C) L
(D) M
29. Find the next term in the series:
AZ, BY, CX, DW, ?
(A) EU
(B) EV
(C) FV
(D) EX
30. Complete the series:
C3, F8, I15, L24, ?
(A) O35
(B) N35
(C) O34
(D) P36
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ANSWER KEY
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1. C — The abettor is judged by his own intention/knowledge where the person abetted acts with a different mens rea.
2. C — Liability extends to a different effect if the abettor knew that such effect was likely.
3. B — The class must exceed ten persons and actual commission is not essential.
4. D — BNS separately deals with concealment by ordinary persons, public servants and concealment of imprisonment offences.
5. D — Conspiracy and attempt provisions are correctly reflected in all four statements.
6. B — Statement 4 is too wide; the village-reporting duty is limited to specified matters.
7. A — Arrest in such a non-cognizable case is for ascertaining identity, followed by release or production as required.
8. B — The protection is for official-duty acts, not every private act.
9. A — Notice and opportunity to withdraw must be given to such female occupant before entry.
10. D — All four statements correctly state BNSS medical examination and identification safeguards.
11. D — The written order, health/safety, discharge and escape-pursuit rules are correctly stated.
12. B — A maker cannot generally prove self-serving admissions except in specified statutory situations.
13. A — Confidential civil admissions are not always relevant; statement 2 is incorrect.
14. C — The correct mapping is Section 20–oral admissions, 21–civil admissions, 22–induced confession, 23–police confession.
15. A — Discovery-related information may be proved, but statement 4 is incorrect because such circumstances do not automatically make an otherwise relevant confession irrelevant.
16. C — If service is complete but time is insufficient, the court should postpone the hearing.
17. B — Under Order IX Rule 2 CPC, failure to pay charges for service may lead to dismissal.
18. C — Under Order IX Rule 8 CPC, if defendant appears and plaintiff does not, the suit is dismissed unless the claim is admitted.
19. B — Order IX Rule 13 allows setting aside ex parte decree for non-service of summons or sufficient cause for non-appearance.
20. A — Under Order IX Rule 3 CPC, if both parties are absent, the court may dismiss the suit.
21. C — The Himalayas were formed by the collision of Indian and Eurasian plates and remain tectonically active.
22. A — From north to south, the order is Himadri, Himachal and Shiwalik.
23. B — The Northern Plains are fertile due to extensive alluvial deposits.
24. C — The Deccan Plateau is an old stable plateau made mainly of hard crystalline rocks.
25. A — The Western Coastal Plain is narrower, while the Eastern Coastal Plain is broader and deltaic.
26. A — Each term is multiplied by 2 and then increased by 2: 7×2+2=16, so 142×2+2=286.
27. C — Each term is multiplied by 2 and then increased by 1: 95×2+1=191.
28. B — Alphabet positions increase by +3, +5, +7, +9, so next is +11: Z loops to K.
29. B — First letters increase A, B, C, D, E while second letters decrease Z, Y, X, W, V.
30. A — Letters increase by +3 and numbers follow +5, +7, +9, +11; hence L24 becomes O35.
Haryana ADA Mains Test Series & Mentorship
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