1. Senior officer sends sexually coloured messages, demands sexual favour for promotion, and monitors
social media despite objection. Which of the following statements are correct?
Statements:
(1) Demand/request for sexual favour may be sexual harassment.
(2) Sexually coloured remarks may independently be prohibited conduct.
(3) Monitoring electronic communication after disinterest may be stalking.
(4) Physical contact is indispensable for every sexual harassment/stalking offence.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Aggravated sexual offences under the BNS:
Statements:
(1) Rape on woman under sixteen has higher minimum punishment.
(2) Rape on woman under twelve is treated more severely.
(3) Rape causing death/persistent vegetative state attracts distinct aggravated provision.
(4) Repeat offender may face life for remainder of natural life or death.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. Woman dies by poisoning six years after marriage; repeated dowry harassment, last demand weeks before
death. Which of the following statements are correct?
Statements:
(1) Abnormal death within seven years is relevant.
(2) “Soon before death” is not fixed by exact hours/days.
(3) Harassment must connect with dowry demand.
(4) Cruelty may be independently punishable even if dowry death not proved.
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 3 only
4. A deceitfully makes B believe they are married and cohabits; C commits bigamy; D goes through
fraudulent marriage ceremony knowing no lawful marriage exists. Which of the following is the correct
legal position?
(A) Only A liable.
(B) A, C and D may each attract different marriage-related offences.
(C) Only C liable.
(D) D liable only if cohabitation follows.
5. Regarding pregnancy, birth and children:
Statements:
(1) Miscarriage in good faith to save woman’s life is treated differently.
(2) Miscarriage without woman’s consent is more severe.
(3) Abandonment of child under twelve does not bar homicide trial if death results.
(4) Concealment of birth applies only where child dies after live birth.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS) — Sections 63–110
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6. Summons under the BNSS:
Statements:
(1) May be in writing in duplicate.
(2) May be in electronic form.
(3) Firm may be served through any partner.
(4) If person not found, service only on adult male family member.
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
7. Warrant of arrest issued; officer does not show warrant despite demand; warrant has bond endorsement.
Which of the following statements are correct?
Statements:
(1) Warrant remains in force until executed/cancelled.
(2) Substance must be notified.
(3) Warrant should be shown if required.
(4) Warrant may contain release-on-security direction.
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 4 only
8. Court issues proclamation after unexecuted warrant and considers attachment. Which of the following
statements are correct?
Statements:
(1) Proclamation must require appearance at specified place/time.
(2) Local daily newspaper publication is mandatory in every case.
(3) Attachment may extend to movable/immovable property.
(4) Attachment may be considered under absconding/property conditions.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 3 and 4 only
9. Forged certificates suspected in office; summons may not secure them; exact cabinet unknown. Which of
the following statements are correct?
Statements:
(1) Summons/order may be issued where production necessary/desirable.
(2) Search warrant may issue where production unlikely.
(3) Search warrant may be appropriate where general search/inspection needed.
(4) Once summons issued, search warrant becomes impossible.
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
10. Financial offence: flat suspected from crime proceeds; during search devices/documents seized. Which
of the following statements are correct?
Statements:
(1) Search/seizure may require audio-video recording.
(2) Police may seize suspected stolen/suspicious property.
(3) Crime-derived property may be attached under statutory framework.
(4) Magistrate may direct search in his presence.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2 and 4 only
11. Injured person tells doctor: “R attacked me near factory because of contract dispute,” and adds “S
cheated me three years ago.” Later dies. Which of the following statements are correct?
Statements:
(1) Attack statement may be relevant.
(2) Maker need not expect death.
(3) Entire conversation automatically relevant.
(4) Statement against maker’s interest may be relevant under separate clause.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
12. Previous testimony of now-dead witness is sought. Which of the following requirements are material?
Statements:
(1) Same parties/representatives.
(2) Right and opportunity to cross-examine.
(3) Substantially same issues.
(4) Applies only in civil proceedings.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
13. Plaintiff relies on account books, official electronic land record and government map. Which of the
following statements are correct?
Statements:
(1) Regular account-book entries may be relevant.
(2) Account entries alone are not sufficient to charge liability.
(3) Public/official electronic records may be relevant.
(4) Government-authorised maps/plans may be relevant.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
14. Earlier judgments relied: one bars second trial; one probate judgment declares legal character; one
relates to public nature. Which of the following statements are correct?
Statements:
(1) Judgment may be relevant where it legally bars second suit/trial.
(2) Probate/matrimonial/admiralty/insolvency judgments may be relevant to status.
(3) Public-nature judgments may be relevant but differ from conclusive judgments in rem.
(4) Every previous judgment proves all facts recorded in it.
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
15. Party proves one line from deceased broker’s letter; opposite party says surrounding paragraphs
explain it. Which of the following statements are correct?
Statements:
(1) Court may require so much of statement/document as necessary for full understanding.
(2) Party may always prove isolated favourable sentence even if meaning changes.
(3) Entire irrelevant document must invariably be proved.
(4) Relevant part may need qualifying/explanatory portions.
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
16. Preamble of India:
(A) Socialist, Secular and Integrity inserted by 44th Amendment.
(B) It aids interpretation but is not source of substantive legislative power.
(C) Courts cannot refer to it.
(D) It originally contained “Socialist Secular”.
17. Select the correct constitutional feature:
(A) Rigid Constitution because every provision amended by simple majority.
(B) Federal system with unitary bias.
(C) Parliamentary sovereignty excludes judicial review.
(D) Presidential executive independent of Council of Ministers.
18. Select the correctly matched pair:
(A) Ninth Schedule — Anti-defection
(B) Tenth Schedule — Rajya Sabha seats
(C) Seventh Schedule — Union, State and Concurrent Lists
(D) Eighth Schedule — Panchayats and Municipalities
19. Select the correctly matched constitutional amendments:
Statements:
(1) 42nd — Fundamental Duties.
(2) 44th — “armed rebellion” for “internal disturbance” in Article 352.
(3) 61st — voting age 21 to 18.
(4) 73rd — municipalities.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
20. Preamble and basic structure:
(A) No connection.
(B) Freely amendable without limitation.
(C) Preambular ideals help identify basic features; amendment cannot destroy basic structure.
(D) Preamble overrides every specific provision.
21. Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025:
(A) replaces BNS
(B) amends Waqf Act, 1995 relating to administration/management of Waqf properties
(C) abolishes all Waqf Boards
(D) amends election expenditure law
22. Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025:
Statements:
(1) Regulates entry, stay, movement and exit of foreigners.
(2) Provides designated immigration posts/functions.
(3) Provides Bureau of Immigration.
(4) Amends Hindu Marriage Act.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
23. Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025 concerns:
(A) banking governance, depositor protection, audit quality and cooperative-bank regulation
(B) abolition of RBI
(C) nationalisation of all private banks
(D) criminal procedure arrest/bail
24. Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026 is associated with:
(A) replacing Constitution
(B) converting civil wrongs into non-bailable offences
(C) decriminalising/rationalising offences and penalties across central Acts
(D) creating civil service authority
25. Disaster Management (Amendment) Act, 2025 amends:
(A) Environment Protection Act, 1986
(B) Disaster Management Act, 2005
(C) Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897
(D) NIA Act, 2008
26. Under Section 51 CPC, which is not a mode of execution?
(A) Delivery of property
(B) Attachment and sale/sale without attachment
(C) Arrest and detention subject to law
(D) Direct criminal conviction for contempt without execution proceeding
27. Transfer of decree for execution to another court is under:
(A) Section 33
(B) Section 39
(C) Section 80
(D) Section 144
28. Judgment-debtor objects decree is nullity for inherent lack of jurisdiction. Which of the following
is the correct legal position?
(A) All objections barred.
(B) Section 47 covers execution/discharge/satisfaction questions; nullity objection may be
considered.
(C) Executing court may modify decree on merits.
(D) Separate suit always required.
29. Generally protected from attachment under Section 60 CPC:
(A) every immovable property
(B) all bank accounts
(C) necessary wearing apparel, cooking vessels, beds and bedding subject to statute
(D) luxury vehicles
30. Arrest/detention in execution of money decree:
(A) requires statutory safeguards and cannot be mechanical
(B) automatic after seven days
(C) only permissible mode
(D) women may always be detained
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ANSWER KEY
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1. A — Sexual harassment and stalking may arise through non-physical conduct.
2. D — BNS enhances punishment for under-sixteen, under-twelve, death/PVS and repeat offenders.
3. C — “Soon before death” is not fixed mechanically; dowry link remains essential.
4. B — Deceitful cohabitation, bigamy and fraudulent ceremony are separate offences.
5. A — Good-faith life-saving miscarriage differs; non-consent aggravates; homicide trial not barred.
6. B — BNSS recognises written/electronic summons and firm service through partner.
7. C — All four propositions correctly state warrant rules.
8. D — Newspaper publication is discretionary, not mandatory in every case.
9. B — Search warrant may follow where production is unlikely or general search needed.
10. A — All listed BNSS search/seizure and property provisions are correct.
11. C — Only death-related part enters; unrelated allegations do not automatically enter.
12. A — Previous testimony needs same parties, cross-examination opportunity and same issues.
13. D — Account entries, official electronic records and government maps may be relevant.
14. B — Judgments differ by bar, status/legal character and public nature.
15. A — Court may require necessary connected portions for proper understanding.
16. B — Preamble guides interpretation but is not an independent legislative power source.
17. B — India is federal with unitary bias.
18. C — Seventh Schedule contains Union, State and Concurrent Lists.
19. A — 73rd concerns Panchayats, not municipalities.
20. C — Preamble helps identify basic features but cannot destroy basic structure.
21. B — Waqf amendment concerns Waqf Act, 1995 and Waqf governance.
22. A — It concerns foreigners/immigration and Bureau of Immigration, not Hindu Marriage Act.
23. A — It concerns bank governance, depositor protection, audit quality and cooperative banks.
24. C — It seeks decriminalisation/rationalisation across central Acts.
25. B — It amends the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
26. D — Section 51 provides civil execution modes, not direct criminal conviction.
27. B — Section 39 CPC deals with transfer for execution.
28. B — Section 47 covers execution questions; nullity may be considered.
29. C — Section 60 protects essential household/personal articles.
30. A — Arrest in money-decree execution requires safeguards and cannot be automatic.