HARYANA ASSISTANT DISTRICT ATTORNEY (ADA) Free Mock Test

HPSC SCREENING TEST — MOCK SERIES

MOCK TEST — 1

Time: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 100 Negative Marking: 0.25 per wrong answer

General Instructions

All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.
Each question has five options; the fifth, (E) Question not attempted, is to be marked only if you choose not to attempt the question.
Questions Q1–Q50 are from the field of Law; Q51–Q100 are from General Studies (the prescribed minimum 50% law weightage).
Criminal-law questions are framed under the new codes — Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023.
Current-events questions pertain to the period June 2025 to June 2026.
An answer key with brief explanations is provided at the end for self-evaluation.

For ADA & Haryana/Punjab Judiciary Mains Practice – 9816789740.

For 5 Free Mocks of Haryana ADA- Legalpadhai.ai

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QUESTION PAPER

PART A — Indian Contract Act, 1872

Q1. Match List I (principle) with List II (leading case) under the Indian Contract Act, 1872:

List I: A. Acceptance by conduct/performance of conditions B. A mere mental assent without communication is no acceptance C. Cross-offers do not make a contract D. Past voluntary service may be supported by a subsequent promise

List II: I. Felthouse v. Bindley II. Tinn v. Hoffmann III. Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. IV. Section 25(2) illustration

(A) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

(B) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

(D) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

(E) Question not attempted

Q2. Regarding free consent (Sections 13-22), which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

(A) A contract caused by coercion or fraud is voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so caused

(B) Mere silence as to facts likely to affect willingness is, by itself, generally not fraud

(C) If consent is caused by misrepresentation, the party may insist that the contract be performed and be put in the position he would have been if the representation were true

(D) An agreement caused by mutual mistake of both parties as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement is voidable, not void

(E) Question not attempted

Q3. A engages B as agent and during performance C interferes. Considering the contract of agency (Sections 182-238), which combination is correct?

An agency coupled with interest is not terminated by the principal’s death or insanity (S.202).
A sub-agent properly appointed is, for acts done in the course of business, the agent of the original agent and the principal is bound (S.192).
Ratification, once made, relates back to the date of the unauthorised act (S.196).
An agent has authority, in an emergency, to do all such acts as a person of ordinary prudence would do to protect his principal (S.189).

(A) A and B only

(B) A, B and C only

(D) B, C and D only

(E) Question not attempted

Q4. A contracts to deliver goods to B and a sum of Rs.5,000 is named in the contract as the amount to be paid in case of breach. B’s actual proved loss on breach is Rs.2,000. Under Section 74, B is entitled to recover:

(A) The whole Rs.5,000 as it is a genuine pre-estimate

(B) Nothing, since the stipulation is a penalty

(D) Reasonable compensation not exceeding Rs.5,000, which on these facts is Rs.2,000

(E) Question not attempted

Q5. Given below are two statements relating to the Indian Contract Act, 1872:

Statement I: An agreement by way of wager is void under Section 30, and no suit lies to recover anything alleged to be won on a wager.

Statement II: A contract of insurance is a species of wagering agreement and is therefore void.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

(A) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

(E) Question not attempted

Q6. Match List I (Section, Indian Contract Act) with List II (subject):

List I: A. Section 23 B. Section 56 C. Section 62 D. Section 73

List II: I. Novation, rescission and alteration II. Compensation for loss caused by breach III. Unlawful consideration and objects IV. Agreement to do an impossible act / subsequent impossibility

(A) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(E) Question not attempted

Q7. A minor fraudulently misrepresents his age and induces B to advance money on a mortgage. Considering Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose, which is correct?

(A) The agreement is void ab initio; the rule of estoppel does not operate against the minor and S.65 restitution does not apply to him

(B) The mortgage is voidable at the minor’s option and B can recover the money under S.65

(D) B can enforce the contract because money advanced is ‘necessaries’ under S.68

(E) Question not attempted

Q8. Regarding discharge by performance and appropriation of payments (Sections 37-63), which combination is correct?

Where a debtor owing several debts expressly intimates that payment is to be applied to a particular debt, the creditor must so apply it (S.59).
Where neither party appropriates, payments are applied in order of time, including to a time-barred debt (S.61).
The promisee may dispense with or remit wholly or in part the performance of the promise (S.63).
A contract need not be performed if both parties agree to substitute a new contract (S.62).

(A) A and C only

(B) A, C and D only

(D) A, B, C and D

(E) Question not attempted

PART B — Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

Q9. Match List I (CPC provision) with List II (subject):

List I: A. Section 9 B. Section 11 C. Section 96 D. Section 115

List II: I. Res judicata II. Revision by the High Court III. Jurisdiction of civil courts to try all civil suits IV. Appeal from original decree

(A) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

(B) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

(D) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

(E) Question not attempted

Q10. Regarding the doctrine of res judicata under Section 11, which statement is INCORRECT?

(A) The matter directly and substantially in issue must have been heard and finally decided in the former suit

(B) Res judicata applies only where the earlier decision was after a contest and never to an ex parte decree

(D) A matter which ‘might and ought’ to have been made a ground of defence or attack is constructively res judicata

(E) Question not attempted

Q11. With reference to ‘decree’, ‘order’ and ‘mesne profits’, which combination is correct?

A decree is the formal expression of an adjudication conclusively determining the rights of parties with regard to the matters in controversy (S.2(2)).
The formal expression of a decision which is not a decree is an order (S.2(14)).
Mesne profits are profits the person in wrongful possession actually received or might with ordinary diligence have received, with interest, but not profits due to improvements made by him (S.2(12)).
A preliminary decree is not a decree and cannot be appealed.

(A) A and D only

(B) A, B and C only

(D) B, C and D only

(E) Question not attempted

Q12. A suit relating to immovable property situated within the jurisdiction of two different courts is to be instituted. Under Sections 16-20 CPC, the correct position is:

(A) It may be instituted in any court within whose local limits any portion of the property is situated (S.17)

(B) It may be filed in any court in India at the plaintiff’s choice

(D) It must be filed only where the cause of action wholly arose

(E) Question not attempted

Q13. Given below are two statements on temporary injunctions under the CPC:

Statement I: A party seeking a temporary injunction must establish a prima facie case, balance of convenience and irreparable injury.

Statement II: The applicant must, in addition, prove that he has finally succeeded on the merits of the suit before an interim injunction can be granted.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

(E) Question not attempted

Q14. Match List I (CPC Order) with List II (subject):

List I: A. Order I B. Order VII C. Order VIII D. Order XXII

List II: I. Plaint II. Written statement, set-off and counter-claim III. Parties to suits (joinder, non-joinder) IV. Death, marriage and insolvency of parties

(A) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

(B) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

(D) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(E) Question not attempted

Q15. Regarding execution of decrees, which combination is correct?

A decree may be executed by the court which passed it or to which it is sent for execution (S.38).
Questions relating to execution, discharge or satisfaction of the decree are determined by the executing court, not by a separate suit (S.47).
The executing court can go behind the decree and question its correctness on merits.
A money decree may be executed by arrest and detention, attachment and sale of property, or appointment of a receiver (S.51).

(A) A, B, C and D

(B) A, B and D only

(D) B, C and D only

(E) Question not attempted

Q16. Concerning pleadings under Order VI, which statement is INCORRECT?

(A) Pleadings must state material facts but not the evidence by which they are to be proved

(B) After commencement of trial, amendment is allowed only if the matter could not have been raised before despite due diligence

(D) Particulars of fraud, misrepresentation and undue influence must be specifically pleaded

(E) Question not attempted

PART C — Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (Criminal Procedure)

Q17. Match List I (BNSS, 2023 provision) with List II (subject):

List I: A. Section 173 B. Section 187 C. Section 193 D. Section 479

List II: I. Procedure on completion of investigation / police report II. Maximum period for which an undertrial may be detained III. Information in cognizable cases (including Zero FIR/electronic) IV. Procedure when investigation is not completed in 24 hours (custody)

(A) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(B) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

(D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(E) Question not attempted

Q18. Under Section 187 BNSS, 2023, regarding police custody during investigation, which statement is correct?

(A) Police custody can never exceed 15 days in the whole

(B) The total period of detention cannot exceed 60 days even for offences punishable with death or life imprisonment

(D) The 15 days of police custody may be sought in parts during the initial 40 or 60 days of the overall detention period

(E) Question not attempted

Q19. With respect to registration of an FIR under the BNSS, 2023, which combination is correct?

Information relating to a cognizable offence may be given orally or by electronic communication (S.173).
A ‘Zero FIR’ may be registered at any police station irrespective of where the offence was committed, and then transferred.
For certain offences punishable with 3 to less than 7 years, the officer may, with prior permission of a superior, conduct a preliminary enquiry within 14 days.
Information given by electronic communication must be taken on record on being signed within three days by the person giving it.

(A) A and B only

(B) A, B and D only

(D) B, C and D only

(E) Question not attempted

Q20. Section 479 BNSS, 2023 deals with the maximum period of detention of an undertrial prisoner. Which statement is INCORRECT?

(A) An undertrial (not charged with an offence punishable with death or life imprisonment) shall be released on bond on undergoing detention of one-half of the maximum imprisonment for the offence

(B) There is no obligation on the Superintendent of jail to move any application for release of such undertrials

(C) A first-time offender (never convicted before) shall be released on bond on undergoing detention up to one-third of the maximum period

(D) The provision does not apply where the offence is punishable with death

(E) Question not attempted

For ADA & Judiciary Mains Practice – 9816789740.

Q21. Given below are two statements regarding the BNSS, 2023:

Statement I: For offences punishable with imprisonment of seven years or more, it is mandatory for a forensic expert to visit the crime scene to collect forensic evidence.

Statement II: The BNSS also mandates audio-video recording of the process of search and seizure.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

(E) Question not attempted

Q22. Match List I (BNSS, 2023 feature) with List II (description):

List I: A. Trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender B. Time limit to pronounce judgment after conclusion of arguments C. Supply of copies of police report and documents to the accused D. Mercy petition timeline in death-sentence cases

List II: I. Within 45 days of conclusion of arguments (extendable to 60) II. Within fourteen days from production or appearance (S.230) III. New provision permitting trial and conviction in absence of the absconding accused IV. Procedure and time limits for filing mercy petitions (S.472)

(A) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

(B) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

(D) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(E) Question not attempted

Q23. Which of the following is a genuinely NEW feature introduced by the BNSS, 2023 (not present in the old CrPC, 1973)?

(A) Provision for anticipatory bail

(B) Definite timelines such as supply of documents within 14 days, framing of charge within 60 days, and judgment within 45 days of conclusion of arguments

(D) Provision for maintenance of wives, children and parents

(E) Question not attempted

PART D — Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (Penal Law)

Q24. Match List I (offence) with List II (Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 section):

List I: A. Punishment for murder B. Criminal conspiracy C. Theft D. Cheating

List II: I. Section 61 II. Section 318 III. Section 103 IV. Section 303

(A) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

(B) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

(D) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(E) Question not attempted

Q25. Regarding the general exceptions and the right of private defence under the BNS, 2023, which statement is INCORRECT?

(A) A child between seven and twelve years is, in all circumstances, fully criminally liable regardless of maturity of understanding

(B) Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under seven years of age

(C) The right of private defence of the body extends to causing death where there is reasonable apprehension of death or grievous hurt

(D) The right of private defence in no case extends to inflicting more harm than is necessary for the purpose of defence

(E) Question not attempted

Q26. A, finding B about to strike him with a stick not likely to cause death, deliberately stabs and kills B though he could have stopped the assault by lesser force. The most appropriate position is:

(A) A is wholly protected by the right of private defence and commits no offence

(B) A is guilty of murder with no mitigation whatsoever

(D) A has exceeded the right of private defence; the killing is culpable homicide not amounting to murder

(E) Question not attempted

Q27. Distinguishing culpable homicide and murder under the BNS, 2023, which combination is correct?

All murder is culpable homicide, but all culpable homicide is not murder.
Culpable homicide is the genus and murder is the species.
Grave and sudden provocation can reduce murder to culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
Causing death by a rash or negligent act not amounting to culpable homicide is itself murder.

(A) A, B, C and D

(B) A, B and C only

(D) B, C and D only

(E) Question not attempted

Q28. Given below are two statements regarding the BNS, 2023:

Statement I: The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 does not contain any offence titled ‘sedition’.

Statement II: Section 152 of the BNS penalises acts that excite secession, armed rebellion or subversive activities, or that endanger the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

(E) Question not attempted

Q29. Match List I (newly highlighted offence in the BNS, 2023) with List II (description):

List I: A. Section 111 B. Section 113 C. Section 304 D. Section 69

List II: I. Terrorist act II. Snatching III. Sexual intercourse by employing deceitful means or false promise of marriage IV. Organised crime

(A) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

(B) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

(D) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(E) Question not attempted

Q30. A snatches a mobile phone from B’s hand on a street and runs away, using only the force needed to seize it. Under the BNS, 2023, the most precise classification is:

(A) Robbery, because any taking by force is robbery

(B) Snatching (S.304), a distinct offence where theft is committed by suddenly, quickly or forcibly seizing or grabbing movable property

(D) Only theft (S.303), with no aggravating description available

(E) Question not attempted

Q31. Which of the following is a genuinely new sentencing feature of the BNS, 2023?

(A) Imprisonment for life as a punishment

(B) Fine as a punishment

(D) Community service as a recognised form of punishment for certain petty offences

(E) Question not attempted

For 5 Free Mocks of Haryana ADA- Legalpadhai.ai

PART E — Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (Law of Evidence)

Q32. Match List I (Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 provision) with List II (subject):

List I: A. Section 6 B. Section 23 C. Section 39 D. Section 63

List II: I. Confession to police officer not to be proved II. Admissibility of electronic/digital records III. Opinion of experts IV. Relevancy of facts forming part of the same transaction (res gestae)

(A) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

(B) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

(D) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(E) Question not attempted

Q33. With respect to electronic and digital records under the BSA, 2023, which statement is correct?

(A) Electronic records are not admissible as evidence at all

(B) Only printed paper documents can be primary evidence

(D) An electronic or digital record is treated as a document and is admissible, subject to the conditions and certificate under Section 63

(E) Question not attempted

Q34. Regarding confessions under the BSA, 2023, which combination is correct?

A confession made to a police officer shall not be proved against a person accused of any offence (S.23(1)).
A confession made while in police custody shall not be proved against the accused unless made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate (S.23(2)).
So much of the information received from an accused in custody as distinctly relates to the fact thereby discovered may be proved (proviso to S.23(2), akin to old S.27).
A confession is always irrelevant even if it leads to the recovery of a weapon.

(A) A, B, C and D

(B) A and D only

(D) A, B and C only

(E) Question not attempted

Q35. Given below are two statements on the burden of proof under the BSA, 2023:

Statement I: When any fact is especially within the knowledge of any person, the burden of proving that fact is upon him (Section 106).

Statement II: Section 106 therefore shifts the entire burden of proving the guilt of the accused on to the accused.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(B) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false

(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

(E) Question not attempted

Q36. Which statement about dying declarations and relevancy under the BSA, 2023 is INCORRECT?

(A) A statement as to the cause of death, or circumstances of the transaction resulting in death, is relevant when the cause of that person’s death is in question

(B) Such a statement is relevant whether or not the maker was, when making it, under expectation of death

(D) Such a statement is relevant whatever be the nature of the proceeding in which the cause of the maker’s death comes into question

(E) Question not attempted

Q37. Match List I (presumption/concept under the BSA, 2023) with List II (description):

List I: A. May presume B. Shall presume C. Conclusive proof D. Burden of proof

List II: I. Court regards a fact as proved unless and until it is disproved II. Court may regard a fact as proved, or call for proof of it III. Lies on him who would fail if no evidence were given on either side IV. On proof of one fact, the court shall regard another as proved and shall not allow evidence to disprove it

(A) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

(B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

(D) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

(E) Question not attempted

Q38. Concerning expert opinion under Section 39 of the BSA, 2023, which statement is correct?

(A) The opinion of an expert is binding on the court, which must decide accordingly

(B) Expert opinion is the only category of opinion evidence ever admissible

(C) When the court has to form an opinion on a point of foreign law, science, art, or identity of handwriting or finger impressions, the opinions of persons specially skilled are relevant

(D) An expert’s opinion can be acted upon without any reference to the reasons or data underlying it

(E) Question not attempted

PART F — Indian Partnership Act, 1932 & Sale of Goods Act, 1930

Q39. Match List I (concept) with List II (provision/Act):

List I: A. Mutual agency among partners (true test) B. Implied authority of a partner C. Doctrine of holding out D. Disabilities of an unregistered firm

List II: I. Section 28, Partnership Act II. Section 19, Partnership Act III. Section 4 (definition) / ‘true test’ of partnership IV. Section 69, Partnership Act

(A) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

(B) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

(D) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

(E) Question not attempted

Q40. Under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, a stipulation collateral to the main purpose of the contract, the breach of which gives rise only to a claim for damages but not a right to reject the goods, is:

(A) A condition

(B) A warranty

(D) An exclusion clause

(E) Question not attempted

For ADA & Judiciary Mains Practice – 9816789740.

Q41. Regarding the authority of a partner and the firm’s liability, which combination is correct?

The act of a partner done to carry on, in the usual way, business of the kind carried on by the firm binds the firm (S.19).
In the absence of usage or custom of trade, a partner has no implied authority to submit a firm dispute to arbitration (S.19(2)).
Every partner is liable jointly with all the others and also severally for all acts of the firm done while he is a partner (S.25).
A new partner admitted into a firm is automatically liable for acts of the firm done before he became a partner.

(A) A, B, C and D

(B) A and D only

(D) B, C and D only

(E) Question not attempted

Q42. A agrees to sell to B specific goods in a deliverable state. Under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, when does property in the goods pass to the buyer?

(A) Only when the price is fully paid, regardless of intention

(B) Only when physical delivery of the goods is given

(D) Only when the goods are weighed or measured by the seller

(E) Question not attempted

Q43. Concerning dissolution of a firm, which statement is INCORRECT?

(A) Dissolution of partnership between all partners of a firm is the dissolution of the firm (S.39)

(B) A firm may be dissolved by mutual agreement of all the partners (S.40)

(D) On dissolution, a partner’s authority to bind the firm ceases immediately and absolutely for every purpose

(E) Question not attempted

Q44. The maxim nemo dat quod non habet under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 has exceptions. Which combination correctly lists exceptions where a buyer may get a good title from a non-owner?

Sale by a mercantile agent in possession with the owner’s consent (proviso to S.27).
Sale by one of several joint owners in sole possession with consent of co-owners (S.28).
Sale by a seller in possession after sale (S.30(1)).
Sale by a person who obtained goods under a voidable contract not yet rescinded (S.29).

(A) A, B, C and D

(B) A and C only

(D) A, B and D only

(E) Question not attempted

PART G — Hindu Law & Muslim Law

Q45. Match List I (provision, HMA 1955 / HSA 1956) with List II (subject):

List I: A. Section 5, HMA B. Section 13B, HMA C. Section 6, HSA D. Section 8, HSA

List II: I. Divorce by mutual consent II. Conditions for a valid Hindu marriage III. General rules of succession to a male Hindu dying intestate IV. Devolution of coparcenary interest (daughters as coparceners)

(A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(B) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

(D) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

(E) Question not attempted

Q46. Given below are two statements on Hindu coparcenary after the 2005 amendment:

Statement I: A daughter of a coparcener becomes, by birth, a coparcener in her own right in the same manner as a son.

Statement II: For a daughter to claim coparcenary rights, her father (the coparcener) must have been alive on 9 September 2005.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

(E) Question not attempted

Q47. A Hindu male dies intestate leaving his mother, his widow and a son. Under Section 8 read with the Schedule (Class I heirs) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, the property:

(A) Goes wholly to the son as the sole male heir

(B) Goes wholly to the widow

(D) Devolves equally upon the mother, the widow and the son, each being a Class I heir taking simultaneously

(E) Question not attempted

Q48. Regarding marriage under Muslim law, which combination is correct?

Nikah is a civil contract, the essentials being proposal (ijab) and acceptance (qubool) at one meeting before witnesses, with competent parties.
Mahr (dower) is a sum of money or property payable by the husband to the wife as a consequence of marriage.
A Muslim marriage without specification of dower is void.
Under Sunni law, marriage of a minor by a guardian is permissible, subject to the ‘option of puberty’ (khyar-ul-bulugh).

(A) A, B and D only

(B) A, B, C and D

(D) B, C and D only

(E) Question not attempted

Q49. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, which of the following marriages is VOID (as distinct from voidable)?

(A) A marriage where consent of a party was obtained by fraud or force

(B) A marriage where either party had a spouse living at the time of the marriage (bigamy)

(D) A marriage where the wife was pregnant by another person at the time of marriage

(E) Question not attempted

Q50. Match List I (Muslim law concept) with List II (meaning):

List I: A. Talaq-ul-sunnat B. Hiba C. Iddat D. Wakf

List II: I. A gift of property made gratuitously and immediately II. A period of waiting a woman must observe after divorce or husband’s death III. An approved/revocable mode of divorce (ahsan or hasan) IV. Permanent dedication of property for religious or charitable purposes

(A) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

(B) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

(D) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(E) Question not attempted

PART H — General Science

Q51. Given below are two statements about human blood:

Statement I: Haemoglobin, an iron-containing protein in red blood cells, is the principal carrier of oxygen in the blood.

Statement II: Plasma constitutes about 90% of blood by volume and is the main carrier of oxygen.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(B) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false

(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

(E) Question not attempted

Q52. Match List I (vitamin) with List II (deficiency disease):

List I: A. Vitamin C B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) D. Vitamin A

List II: I. Rickets II. Night blindness III. Scurvy IV. Beri-beri

(A) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(B) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

(D) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(E) Question not attempted

Q53. A piece of iron is heated and its temperature rises. Which statement best explains the phenomenon at the microscopic level?

(A) The number of atoms in the iron increases

(B) The atoms convert into a different element

(D) The mass of the iron increases significantly

(E) Question not attempted

Q54. Which of the following is the correct order of electromagnetic waves in increasing order of wavelength?

(A) Microwaves < Infrared < Visible < Ultraviolet < X-rays < Gamma rays

(B) Visible < Infrared < Microwaves < X-rays < Gamma rays < Ultraviolet

(D) Infrared < Visible < Ultraviolet < Microwaves < X-rays < Gamma rays

(E) Question not attempted

Q55. Regarding chemical bonding, which statement is INCORRECT?

(A) An ionic bond is formed by transfer of electrons from one atom to another

(B) A covalent bond is formed by sharing of electron pairs between atoms

(D) A hydrogen bond is weaker than a covalent bond

(E) Question not attempted

Q56. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The clear daytime sky appears blue.

Statement II: Shorter (blue) wavelengths of sunlight are scattered more strongly by the molecules of the atmosphere than longer wavelengths (Rayleigh scattering).

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

(B) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false

(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

(E) Question not attempted

Q57. Which combination correctly matches the physical quantity with its SI unit?

Electric current — ampere
Pressure — pascal
Frequency — hertz
Force — joule

(A) A, B, C and D

(B) A and D only

(D) B, C and D only

(E) Question not attempted

PART I — Current Events (June 2025 – June 2026)

Q58. Match List I (scheme/initiative of 2025) with List II (key feature):

List I: A. PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PM-DDKY) B. PM-SETU C. National Makhana Board D. SOAR

List II: I. Rs.60,000 crore scheme to upgrade 1,000 Government ITIs in a hub-and-spoke model (launched 4 Oct 2025) II. Central Sector Scheme for development of makhana, launched September 2025 III. Targets 100 low-productivity agricultural districts (launched 11 Oct 2025) IV. July 2025 programme to introduce foundational AI skills to school students of Classes 6–12

(A) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

(B) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

(D) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

(E) Question not attempted

Q59. Given below are two statements based on the SIPRI Yearbook 2026:

Statement I: India was the world’s fifth-largest military spender in 2025.

Statement II: India’s military expenditure in 2025 was about $92.1 billion.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

(E) Question not attempted

Q60. Given below are two statements about India’s Ramsar (wetland) sites:

Statement I: Around World Environment Day 2026, India’s tally of Ramsar sites reached 100, making it one of the world’s leaders in the number of such sites.

Statement II: India’s 100th Ramsar site was declared in the State of Haryana.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

(D) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false

(E) Question not attempted

For ADA & Judiciary Mains Practice – 9816789740.

Q61. Who was sworn in as the 52nd Chief Justice of India in May 2025?

(A) Justice Bhushan Ramkrishna Gavai

(B) Justice D. Y. Chandrachud

(D) Justice U. U. Lalit

(E) Question not attempted

Q62. Match List I (person) with List II (achievement/position in 2025–26):

List I: A. Admiral Krishna Swaminathan B. Major Abhilasha Barak C. Alexander Zverev D. Shivraj Singh Chouhan

List II: I. Won the men’s singles title at the 2026 French Open II. Appointed the 27th Chief of the Naval Staff III. Chaired the BRICS Agriculture Ministers’ meeting that adopted the Indore Declaration (June 2026) IV. Recipient of the 2025 UN Military Gender Advocate of the Year Award

(A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

(D) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

(E) Question not attempted

Q63. Given below are two statements on India’s sovereign credit rating in 2025:

Statement I: In August 2025, S&P Global Ratings downgraded India’s long-term sovereign rating to ‘BBB-‘.

Statement II: The 2025 rating action was the first change in India’s S&P sovereign rating in about 18 years.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

(E) Question not attempted

Q64. Given below are two statements about the Zojila Tunnel:

Statement I: The Zojila Tunnel is being built to provide year-round road connectivity between the Kashmir Valley and Ladakh.

Statement II: The Zojila Pass remains closed for several months in winter owing to heavy snowfall and avalanches.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

(E) Question not attempted

PART J — History of India

Q65. Match List I (Indus Valley site) with List II (notable feature):

List I: A. Lothal B. Mohenjodaro C. Kalibangan D. Dholavira

List II: I. The Great Bath II. A dockyard III. An elaborate water-management/reservoir system IV. Ploughed field furrows

(A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(B) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

(D) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

(E) Question not attempted

Q66. Given below are two statements on eighteenth-century India:

Statement I: It was the Battle of Plassey (1757) that established the military supremacy of the English East India Company across northern India.

Statement II: The Battle of Buxar (1764) led to the grant of the Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa to the Company in 1765.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(B) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

(D) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false

(E) Question not attempted

Q67. Which of the following pairs of a Mughal ruler and an associated work/policy is correctly matched?

(A) Aurangzeb — construction of the Taj Mahal

(B) Babur — the Mansabdari system in its developed form

(D) Shah Jahan — the religious policy of sulh-i-kul first introduced

(E) Question not attempted

Q68. Arrange the following events of the Indian freedom struggle in correct chronological order:

Jallianwala Bagh massacre 2. Non-Cooperation Movement 3. Quit India Movement 4. Dandi Salt March

(A) 2, 1, 4, 3

(B) 1, 4, 2, 3

(D) 1, 2, 3, 4

(E) Question not attempted

Q69. Which combination correctly matches the social reformer with the organisation/movement founded by him?

Raja Ram Mohan Roy — Brahmo Samaj
Swami Dayanand Saraswati — Arya Samaj
Jyotiba Phule — Satyashodhak Samaj
Annie Besant — Ramakrishna Mission

(A) A, B, C and D

(B) A, B and C only

(D) B, C and D only

(E) Question not attempted

Q70. The ‘Doctrine of Lapse’, a policy of annexation, is most closely associated with:

(A) Lord Cornwallis

(B) Lord William Bentinck

(D) Lord Curzon

(E) Question not attempted

For 5 Free Mocks of Haryana ADA- Legalpadhai.ai

PART K — Indian and World Geography

Q71. Match List I (river) with List II (source/origin region):

List I: A. Godavari B. Narmada C. Kaveri D. Sutlej

List II: I. Amarkantak Plateau II. Trimbak (Nashik), Western Ghats III. Rakshastal/Mansarovar region (Tibet) IV. Talakaveri, Brahmagiri Hills

(A) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

(B) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

(D) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(E) Question not attempted

Q72. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Tropic of Cancer passes through several Indian states.

Statement II: The Tropic of Cancer lies at approximately 23.5° North latitude, and parts of India extend across that latitude.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

(E) Question not attempted

Q73. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: India receives the bulk of its annual rainfall during the South-West Monsoon season.

Statement II: Intense summer heating creates a low-pressure area over the subcontinent that draws in moisture-laden winds from the surrounding seas.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

(E) Question not attempted

Q74. Which combination correctly matches the country with its capital?

Australia — Canberra
Canada — Ottawa
Brazil — Brasília
Switzerland — Geneva

(A) A, B and C only

(B) A, B, C and D

(D) B, C and D only

(E) Question not attempted

Q75. Black cotton soil (regur), important for cotton cultivation, is predominantly found in:

(A) The Deccan Trap region of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat

(B) The Indo-Gangetic plains

(D) The cold desert of Ladakh

(E) Question not attempted

Q76. Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding the layers of the Earth’s atmosphere?

(A) The troposphere is the lowermost layer where most weather phenomena occur

(B) The ozone layer that absorbs ultraviolet radiation lies in the stratosphere

(D) The ionosphere, which reflects radio waves, lies within the thermosphere

(E) Question not attempted

PART L — Indian Polity

Q77. Match List I (Fundamental Right) with List II (Article of the Constitution):

List I: A. Right to Equality B. Right against Exploitation C. Right to Freedom of Religion D. Right to Constitutional Remedies

List II: I. Articles 25–28 II. Articles 14–18 III. Article 32 IV. Articles 23–24

(A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(B) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

(D) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

(E) Question not attempted

Q78. Given below are two statements on the office of the President of India:

Statement I: The President of India is not directly elected by the people.

Statement II: The President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the State (and certain UT) Legislative Assemblies.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

(B) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false

(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(E) Question not attempted

Q79. Given below are two statements on the Directive Principles of State Policy:

Statement I: The Directive Principles of State Policy are not enforceable by any court.

Statement II: Article 37 expressly declares that the Directive Principles shall not be enforceable by any court, though they are fundamental in the governance of the country.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

(E) Question not attempted

Q80. Match List I (constitutional amendment) with List II (subject):

List I: A. 42nd Amendment (1976) B. 73rd Amendment (1992) C. 101st Amendment (2016) D. 61st Amendment (1988)

List II: I. Panchayati Raj institutions II. Goods and Services Tax (GST) III. Added ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’ and ‘Integrity’ to the Preamble IV. Reduced voting age from 21 to 18 years

(A) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

(B) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

(D) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(E) Question not attempted

For ADA & Judiciary Mains Practice – 9816789740.

Q81. Which combination of writs and their purposes is correct?

Habeas Corpus — to produce a detained person before the court
Mandamus — to command a public authority to perform its legal duty
Quo Warranto — to question the legal authority of a person holding a public office
Certiorari — to forbid a lower court from continuing proceedings

(A) A, B, C and D

(B) A, B and C only

(D) B, C and D only

(E) Question not attempted

Q82. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its:

(A) Original jurisdiction (Article 131)

(B) Advisory jurisdiction

(D) Revisional jurisdiction

(E) Question not attempted

PART M — Indian Economy

Q83. Given below are two statements on monetary policy:

Statement I: An increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) reduces the lending capacity of commercial banks.

Statement II: The CRR is the portion of a bank’s net demand and time liabilities that it must keep as reserves with the Reserve Bank of India.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

(E) Question not attempted

Q84. Match List I (term) with List II (meaning):

List I: A. Fiscal Deficit B. Revenue Deficit C. Primary Deficit D. Direct Tax

List II: I. Fiscal deficit minus interest payments II. Excess of total expenditure over total receipts excluding borrowings III. A tax whose burden cannot be shifted, e.g., income tax IV. Excess of revenue expenditure over revenue receipts

(A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

(D) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

(E) Question not attempted

Q85. The term ‘Repo Rate’ refers to:

(A) The rate at which the RBI lends short-term funds to commercial banks against government securities

(B) The rate at which commercial banks keep deposits with the RBI

(D) The rate of return on government bonds

(E) Question not attempted

Q86. Which combination correctly describes features of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India?

It is a destination-based, multi-stage indirect tax on supply of goods and services.
It subsumed several central and state indirect taxes such as excise duty, service tax and VAT.
It is administered through the GST Council, a constitutional body.
It is a direct tax levied on the income of individuals.

(A) A, B and C only

(B) A, B, C and D

(D) B, C and D only

(E) Question not attempted

Q87. Given below are two statements on national income accounting:

Statement I: GDP at market prices is generally higher than GDP at factor cost.

Statement II: GDP at market prices equals GDP at factor cost plus net indirect taxes (indirect taxes minus subsidies).

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

(E) Question not attempted

PART N — Haryana General Knowledge

Q88. Given below are two statements on the formation of Haryana:

Statement I: Haryana came into existence as a separate State on 1 November 1966.

Statement II: Haryana was carved out of the State of Rajasthan on the recommendation of the States Reorganisation Commission of 1956.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

(D) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false

(E) Question not attempted

Q89. Match List I (Haryana city) with List II (well-known association):

List I: A. Panipat B. Kurukshetra C. Gurugram D. Faridabad

List II: I. Battlefield associated with the Mahabharata II. Major information-technology and corporate hub III. Site of three historic battles (1526, 1556, 1761) IV. Major industrial city linked to the Sufi saint Baba Farid

(A) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

(B) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

(D) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(E) Question not attempted

Q90. The folk dance traditions traditionally associated with Haryana include:

(A) Bihu

(B) Garba

(D) Bhangra as the sole indigenous dance

(E) Question not attempted

Q91. Which combination correctly describes Haryana’s rivers/water resources?

The Yamuna forms the eastern boundary of Haryana.
The Ghaggar is a seasonal river flowing through parts of Haryana.
The Western Yamuna Canal is an important source of irrigation in the State.
The Narmada is the principal river of Haryana.

(A) A, B, C and D

(B) A and D only

(D) A, B and C only

(E) Question not attempted

Q92. Which of the following is correct regarding agriculture and the economy of Haryana?

(A) Haryana contributed significantly to the Green Revolution and is a major producer of wheat and rice

(B) Haryana is primarily a tea-producing State

(D) Haryana is the leading producer of coffee in India

(E) Question not attempted

Q93. The seat of the Government of Haryana (its capital) is:

(A) Gurugram

(B) Faridabad

(D) Chandigarh (shared with Punjab)

(E) Question not attempted

PART O — Reasoning and Analytical Ability

Q94. If in a certain code ‘TEACHER’ is written as ‘VGCEJGT’, then how is ‘STUDENT’ written in the same code?

(A) UWVFGPV

(B) UVWGFPV

(D) UVWFGPV

(E) Question not attempted

Q95. Pointing to a photograph, a man said, ‘She is the daughter of the only son of my grandfather.’ How is the woman related to the man?

(A) His daughter

(B) His cousin

(D) His sister

(E) Question not attempted

Q96. Find the next term in the series: 3, 6, 11, 18, 27, ?

(A) 35

(B) 38

(D) 36

(E) Question not attempted

Q97. In a row of 25 children facing north, Ravi is 11th from the left end. What is his position from the right end?

(A) 14th

(B) 15th

(D) 16th

(E) Question not attempted

PART P — Basic Numeracy and Data Interpretation

Q98. A sum of money becomes Rs.1,260 in 2 years and Rs.1,350 in 3 years at simple interest. What is the principal?

(A) Rs.1,000

(B) Rs.1,100

(D) Rs.1,170

(E) Question not attempted

Q99. The average of five consecutive even numbers is 36. What is the largest of these numbers?

(A) 40

(B) 38

(D) 44

(E) Question not attempted

Q100. In a class of 60 students, 40% scored above 75 marks and the rest scored 75 or below. Of those who scored 75 or below, 25% scored below 40 marks. How many students scored in the 40-to-75 range?

(A) 27

(B) 24

(D) 36

(E) Question not attempted

For 5 Free Mocks of Haryana ADA- Legalpadhai.ai

For ADA & Judiciary Mains Practice – 9816789740.

ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATIONS

Quick Answer Grid

Q1	Q2	Q3	Q4	Q5	Q6	Q7	Q8	Q9	Q10
C	D	C	D	A	D	A	D	C	B
Q11	Q12	Q13	Q14	Q15	Q16	Q17	Q18	Q19	Q20
B	A	C	B	B	C	D	D	C	B
Q21	Q22	Q23	Q24	Q25	Q26	Q27	Q28	Q29	Q30
A	C	B	D	A	D	B	B	D	B
Q31	Q32	Q33	Q34	Q35	Q36	Q37	Q38	Q39	Q40
D	A	D	D	B	C	C	C	A	B
Q41	Q42	Q43	Q44	Q45	Q46	Q47	Q48	Q49	Q50
C	C	D	A	A	C	D	A	B	A
Q51	Q52	Q53	Q54	Q55	Q56	Q57	Q58	Q59	Q60
B	D	C	C	C	C	C	D	A	D
Q61	Q62	Q63	Q64	Q65	Q66	Q67	Q68	Q69	Q70
A	B	D	B	A	B	C	C	B	C
Q71	Q72	Q73	Q74	Q75	Q76	Q77	Q78	Q79	Q80
D	B	B	A	A	C	C	D	B	A
Q81	Q82	Q83	Q84	Q85	Q86	Q87	Q88	Q89	Q90
B	A	A	B	A	A	B	D	A	C
Q91	Q92	Q93	Q94	Q95	Q96	Q97	Q98	Q99	Q100
D	A	D	D	D	B	B	C	A	A

Detailed Explanations

Q1. Answer: (C). Carlill (acceptance by performance, A-III); Felthouse (silence/mental assent not acceptance, B-I); Tinn v. Hoffmann (cross-offers, C-II); S.25(2) covers past voluntary services (D-IV).

Q2. Answer: (D). A bilateral mistake of fact essential to the agreement makes the agreement VOID under S.20, not voidable. The other three correctly state Ss.19, 17 (explanation) and 19.

Q3. Answer: (C). A (S.202), C (S.196) and D (S.189) are correct. B is wrong: where a sub-agent is properly appointed, the principal is (as regards third persons) represented by the sub-agent and is bound by his acts (S.192); the original agent remains responsible to the principal for the sub-agent.

Q4. Answer: (D). S.74: whether the named sum is a penalty or liquidated damages, the aggrieved party can recover only reasonable compensation not exceeding the amount named. The proved loss being Rs.2,000, that is the measure (Fateh Chand; Kailash Nath Associates).

Q5. Answer: (A). Statement I is true (S.30). Statement II is false: a contract of insurance is NOT a wager because of the requirement of insurable interest; hence it is valid. So Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Q6. Answer: (D). S.23 (unlawful consideration/object, A-III); S.56 (impossibility/frustration, B-IV); S.62 (novation, rescission, alteration, C-I); S.73 (compensation for breach, D-II).

Q7. Answer: (A). An agreement by a minor is void ab initio (Mohori Bibee). Estoppel does not apply against a minor who misrepresents age, and S.65 (restitution on agreement ‘discovered to be void’) does not apply to a minor’s agreement. A money loan is not ‘necessaries’ (S.68).

Q8. Answer: (D). All four are correct: express appropriation by debtor binds creditor (S.59); failing any appropriation, payments applied in order of time, even to time-barred debts (S.61); promisee may remit performance (S.63); novation discharges the original contract (S.62).

Q9. Answer: (C). S.9 (courts to try all civil suits, A-III); S.11 (res judicata, B-I); S.96 (first appeal from original decree, C-IV); S.115 (revision, D-II).

Q10. Answer: (B). Res judicata can apply to an ex parte decree, provided the matter was heard and finally decided; a contest is not essential. The others correctly state S.11 and Explanation IV (constructive res judicata).

Q11. Answer: (B). A (S.2(2)), B (S.2(14)) and C (S.2(12)) are correct. D is wrong: a preliminary decree is a decree and is appealable.

Q12. Answer: (A). S.17: where immovable property is situated within the jurisdiction of different courts, the suit may be instituted in any court within whose local limits any portion of the property is situated, subject to pecuniary jurisdiction.

Q13. Answer: (C). Statement I correctly states the triple test. Statement II is false: final success on merits is decided at trial and is not a precondition for an interim injunction. Hence Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Q14. Answer: (B). Order I (parties, A-III); Order VII (plaint, B-I); Order VIII (written statement/set-off/counter-claim, C-II); Order XXII (death/marriage/insolvency, D-IV).

Q15. Answer: (B). A (S.38), B (S.47) and D (S.51) are correct. C is wrong: the executing court cannot go behind the decree; it must take the decree as it stands (unless a nullity for want of jurisdiction).

Q16. Answer: (C). Every pleading must be verified (Order VI Rule 15), in addition to being signed. The others correctly state the rules on material facts, amendment (proviso to O.6 R.17) and particulars (O.6 R.4).

Q17. Answer: (D). S.173 (information in cognizable cases / FIR, A-III); S.187 (custody where investigation not completed in 24 hours, B-IV); S.193 (police report on completion of investigation, C-I); S.479 (maximum detention of undertrials, D-II).

Q18. Answer: (D). Under S.187 BNSS the 15-day police custody need not be taken in one stretch at the start; it may be sought in parts within the first 40 days (offences up to 10 yrs) or 60 days (death/life/>=10 yrs) of the overall 60/90-day limit — a key change from the old S.167 CrPC.

Q19. Answer: (C). All four are correct features of S.173 BNSS: oral or electronic information; Zero FIR; preliminary enquiry (14 days) for 3 to <7 year offences with superior’s permission; and electronic information to be signed within three days.

Q20. Answer: (B). S.479 BNSS expressly casts a duty on the jail Superintendent to apply in writing for release of eligible undertrials. The other three correctly state the one-half rule, one-third rule for first-time offenders, and the carve-out for death-punishable offences.

Q21. Answer: (A). Both statements are true: S.176(3) makes forensic visits mandatory for offences carrying seven years or more, and S.105 mandates audio-video recording of search and seizure. However, Statement II is an independent reform and does not ‘explain’ the forensic-visit requirement in Statement I, so II is not the correct explanation of I.

Q22. Answer: (C). Trial in absentia of proclaimed offenders is a new BNSS feature (A-III); judgment within 45 days, extendable to 60 (B-I); documents to accused within 14 days, S.230 (C-II); mercy petition procedure, S.472 (D-IV).

Q23. Answer: (B). Strict statutory timelines (documents in 14 days; charge within 60 days; judgment within 45 days) are new structural features of the BNSS for speedy trial. Anticipatory bail, warrantless arrest in cognizable cases and maintenance existed under the CrPC.

Q24. Answer: (D). Punishment for murder S.103 (A-III); criminal conspiracy S.61 (B-I); theft S.303 (C-IV); cheating S.318 (D-II).

Q25. Answer: (A). A child above seven and under twelve is exempt where he has not attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge the nature and consequences of his conduct (doli incapax). The other three correctly state the general exceptions and limits on private defence.

Q26. Answer: (D). Where a person exceeds the right of private defence and causes death in good faith without premeditation and without intending more harm than necessary, the offence is culpable homicide not amounting to murder (the private-defence exception, mirroring old Exception 2 to S.300 IPC).

Q27. Answer: (B). A, B and C are correct classic propositions. D is wrong: causing death by a rash or negligent act not amounting to culpable homicide is a distinct, lesser offence (death by negligence, S.106 BNS), not murder.

Q28. Answer: (B). Both statements are true: the BNS drops the label ‘sedition’, and S.152 creates a distinct offence against the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India. But S.152’s content does not by itself ‘explain’ the omission of the word ‘sedition’, so II is not the correct explanation of I.

Q29. Answer: (D). Organised crime S.111 (A-IV); terrorist act S.113 (B-I); snatching S.304, a new offence (C-II); sexual intercourse by deceitful means/false promise of marriage S.69 (D-III).

Q30. Answer: (B). The BNS introduces ‘snatching’ as a separate offence (S.304): theft is snatching if, to commit it, the offender suddenly, quickly or forcibly seizes or grabs movable property. Robbery requires additional force/hurt or fear; dacoity requires five or more persons.

Q31. Answer: (D). Community service is introduced as a form of punishment under the BNS (e.g., for petty theft, attempt to commit suicide to compel a public servant, certain cases of defamation). Life imprisonment, fine and forfeiture already existed under the IPC.

Q32. Answer: (A). Res gestae S.6 (A-IV); confession to police not proved S.23 (B-I); expert opinion S.39 (C-III); admissibility of electronic records S.63 (D-II).

Q33. Answer: (D). The BSA expressly treats electronic/digital records as documents and admissible (Ss.61-63). S.63 (corresponding to old S.65B) prescribes the conditions and certificate for admissibility; the certificate requirement is retained, not abolished.

Q34. Answer: (D). A, B and C correctly state S.23 BSA. D is wrong precisely because the discovery proviso allows so much of the information as relates to the fact discovered to be proved.

Q35. Answer: (B). Statement I correctly states S.106. Statement II is false: S.106 only governs proof of facts especially within a person’s knowledge; the general burden of proving the guilt of the accused beyond reasonable doubt always remains on the prosecution. Hence I is true but II is false.

Q36. Answer: (C). A dying declaration need not be recorded only by a Magistrate; it may be recorded by a doctor, police officer or any person, and even an oral dying declaration may be relied upon if trustworthy. The other three correctly state the rule.

Q37. Answer: (C). ‘May presume’ (A-II); ‘shall presume’ (B-I); ‘conclusive proof’ (C-IV); burden of proof lies on him who asserts/would fail otherwise (D-III).

Q38. Answer: (C). S.39 BSA makes relevant the opinions of persons specially skilled on foreign law, science, art, or identity of handwriting/finger impressions (and the BSA extends this to examination of electronic evidence). Such opinion is advisory, not binding, and is weighed with its reasoning and data.

Q39. Answer: (A). Mutual agency is the true test of partnership (S.4 / Cox v. Hickman, A-III); implied authority of a partner S.19 (B-II); holding out S.28 (C-I); disabilities of unregistered firm S.69 (D-IV).

Q40. Answer: (B). S.12 SoGA: a condition is essential to the main purpose (breach allows repudiation), while a warranty is collateral (breach gives only a right to damages, not rejection).

Q41. Answer: (C). A (S.19(1)), B (S.19(2)) and C (S.25) are correct. D is wrong: a person admitted as a partner is not liable for acts of the firm done before he became a partner (S.31).

Q42. Answer: (C). S.20 SoGA: in an unconditional contract for the sale of specific goods in a deliverable state, property passes when the contract is made; postponement of payment or delivery is immaterial.

Q43. Answer: (D). After dissolution, partners’ authority continues so far as necessary to wind up the firm’s affairs and complete unfinished transactions (S.47). The other three correctly state Ss.39, 40 and 44.

Q44. Answer: (A). All four are recognised exceptions to nemo dat: mercantile agent (proviso to S.27), one of joint owners in sole possession (S.28), seller in possession after sale (S.30(1)), and sale under a voidable contract before rescission (S.29).

Q45. Answer: (A). Conditions of valid marriage S.5 HMA (A-II); divorce by mutual consent S.13B HMA (B-I); coparcenary devolution / daughters as coparceners S.6 HSA (C-IV); succession to male intestate S.8 HSA (D-III).

Q46. Answer: (C). Statement I is correct. Statement II is false after Vineeta Sharma v. Rakesh Sharma (2020), which held that the daughter’s right is by birth and the father need not have been alive on 9 September 2005 (overruling Prakash v. Phulavati on this point). Hence I is true but II is false.

Q47. Answer: (D). Mother, widow and son are all Class I heirs and take simultaneously to the exclusion of other heirs (S.8 and the Schedule). On these facts each takes an equal one-third share.

Q48. Answer: (A). A, B and D are correct. C is wrong: non-specification of dower does not invalidate the marriage; the wife is entitled to ‘proper dower’ (mahr-i-misl). Dower is an effect of marriage, not a condition precedent to validity.

Q49. Answer: (B). A bigamous marriage contravenes S.5(i) and is void under S.11. Fraud/force (S.12(1)(c)), impotence (S.12(1)(a)) and pre-marriage pregnancy by another (S.12(1)(d)) render a marriage voidable, not void.

Q50. Answer: (A). Talaq-ul-sunnat is the approved mode (ahsan/hasan, A-III); hiba is a gift (B-I); iddat is the waiting period (C-II); wakf is dedication for religious/charitable purposes (D-IV).

Q51. Answer: (B). Statement I is correct. Statement II is false: plasma is roughly 55% of blood by volume and chiefly carries water, proteins, nutrients and wastes — not oxygen, which is carried by haemoglobin. Hence I is true but II is false.

Q52. Answer: (D). Vitamin C – scurvy (A-III); Vitamin D – rickets (B-I); Thiamine (B1) – beri-beri (C-IV); Vitamin A – night blindness (D-II).

Q53. Answer: (C). Temperature is a measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles; heating increases their vibrational kinetic energy. The number of atoms, the element and (significantly) the mass do not change.

Q54. Answer: (C). Wavelength increases (frequency decreases) from gamma rays to X-rays to UV to visible to infrared to microwaves.

Q55. Answer: (C). NaCl is an ionic compound (Na+ and Cl- held by ionic/electrostatic bonds), not covalent. The other three statements are correct.

Q56. Answer: (C). Both statements are true, and Statement II (preferential Rayleigh scattering of shorter wavelengths) is the correct scientific explanation of Statement I (the blue colour of the sky).

Q57. Answer: (C). Current–ampere, pressure–pascal, frequency–hertz are correct. The SI unit of force is the newton, not the joule (joule is energy/work), so D is wrong.

Q58. Answer: (D). PM-DDKY — 100 low-productivity districts (A-III); PM-SETU — Rs.60,000 cr, 1,000 ITIs (B-I); National Makhana Board (C-II); SOAR — AI skilling for Classes 6–12 (D-IV).

Q59. Answer: (A). Both statements are true as per SIPRI Yearbook 2026. However, the absolute figure in Statement II does not by itself ‘explain’ the relative ranking in Statement I (which depends on other countries’ spending too), so II is not the correct explanation of I.

Q60. Answer: (D). Statement I is true. Statement II is false: the 100th Ramsar site was the Jai Prakash Narayan Bird Sanctuary (Surha Tal) in Ballia, Uttar Pradesh, not in Haryana. Hence I is true but II is false.

Q61. Answer: (A). Justice Bhushan Ramkrishna Gavai was sworn in as the 52nd Chief Justice of India in May 2025.

Q62. Answer: (B). Admiral Krishna Swaminathan — 27th CNS (A-II); Major Abhilasha Barak — 2025 UN Military Gender Advocate (B-IV); Alexander Zverev — 2026 French Open men’s singles (C-I); Shivraj Singh Chouhan — chaired BRICS meeting adopting the Indore Declaration (D-III).

Q63. Answer: (D). Statement I is false: S&P UPGRADED India (from ‘BBB-‘ to ‘BBB’ with a Stable outlook) on 14 August 2025; it was not a downgrade. Statement II is true — it was the first such rating change in about 18 years. Hence I is false but II is true.

Q64. Answer: (B). Both statements are true, and Statement II (winter closure of the avalanche-prone Zojila Pass) is the correct explanation of Statement I (why an all-weather tunnel, whose final breakthrough came on 9 June 2026, is being built).

Q65. Answer: (A). Lothal — dockyard (A-II); Mohenjodaro — Great Bath (B-I); Kalibangan — ploughed field (C-IV); Dholavira — advanced water management/reservoirs (D-III).

Q66. Answer: (B). Statement I is false: Plassey (1757) only gave the Company a foothold in Bengal; it was Buxar (1764) that established its military supremacy. Statement II is true — Buxar led to the Diwani grant of 1765. Hence I is false but II is true.

Q67. Answer: (C). Akbar abolished the jizya and founded the Din-i-Ilahi. The Taj Mahal was built by Shah Jahan; the developed Mansabdari system is associated with Akbar; sulh-i-kul is also Akbar’s policy.

Q68. Answer: (C). Jallianwala Bagh (1919), Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–22), Dandi Salt March (1930), Quit India Movement (1942) — order 1, 2, 4, 3.

Q69. Answer: (B). Brahmo Samaj (Ram Mohan Roy), Arya Samaj (Dayanand), Satyashodhak Samaj (Phule) are correct. The Ramakrishna Mission was founded by Swami Vivekananda, not Annie Besant, so D is wrong.

Q70. Answer: (C). The Doctrine of Lapse, under which a princely state without a natural heir would ‘lapse’ to the British, was vigorously applied by Lord Dalhousie (Satara, Jhansi, Nagpur, etc.).

Q71. Answer: (D). Godavari — Trimbak near Nashik (A-II); Narmada — Amarkantak (B-I); Kaveri — Talakaveri, Brahmagiri (C-IV); Sutlej — Rakshastal/Mansarovar region in Tibet (D-III).

Q72. Answer: (B). Both statements are true, and Statement II (the location of the Tropic of Cancer at ~23.5° N and India’s extent across it) is the correct explanation of Statement I (that it passes through Indian states).

Q73. Answer: (B). Both statements are true, and Statement II (the land-sea pressure difference set up by summer heating) is the correct explanation of Statement I (the concentration of rainfall in the South-West Monsoon).

Q74. Answer: (A). Canberra (Australia), Ottawa (Canada) and Brasília (Brazil) are correct. The capital of Switzerland is Bern, not Geneva, so D is wrong.

Q75. Answer: (A). Black cotton soil (regur), formed from weathering of basaltic Deccan Trap lava, is found mainly in Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and parts of the Deccan plateau.

Q76. Answer: (C). Temperature does not continuously decrease; it falls in the troposphere, rises in the stratosphere (ozone), falls in the mesosphere and rises again in the thermosphere. The other three are correct.

Q77. Answer: (C). Right to Equality (Arts 14–18, A-II); Right against Exploitation (Arts 23–24, B-IV); Right to Freedom of Religion (Arts 25–28, C-I); Right to Constitutional Remedies (Art 32, D-III).

Q78. Answer: (D). Both statements are true, and Statement II (the indirect election by an electoral college under Article 54) is the correct explanation of Statement I (that the President is not directly elected by the people).

Q79. Answer: (B). Both statements are true, and Statement II (the text of Article 37) is the correct explanation of Statement I (the non-justiciable character of the Directive Principles).

Q80. Answer: (A). 42nd Amendment — Preamble words (A-III); 73rd — Panchayati Raj (B-I); 101st — GST (C-II); 61st — voting age 21→18 (D-IV).

Q81. Answer: (B). Habeas Corpus, Mandamus and Quo Warranto are correctly described. Certiorari quashes an order already passed; the writ to forbid continuance of proceedings is Prohibition — so D is wrong.

Q82. Answer: (A). Article 131 confers original jurisdiction on the Supreme Court in disputes between the Government of India and States, or between States. Advisory jurisdiction is under Article 143.

Q83. Answer: (A). Both statements are true, and Statement II (the definition of CRR as reserves locked with the RBI) is the correct explanation of Statement I (why raising it shrinks the funds banks can lend).

Q84. Answer: (B). Fiscal deficit (A-II); revenue deficit (B-IV); primary deficit = fiscal deficit minus interest payments (C-I); direct tax such as income tax (D-III).

Q85. Answer: (A). The repo rate is the rate at which the RBI provides short-term liquidity to commercial banks against the collateral of government and other approved securities.

Q86. Answer: (A). GST is a destination-based, multi-stage indirect tax (A), subsumed many indirect taxes (B), and is governed by the GST Council under Article 279A (C). It is an indirect tax, not a direct tax on income, so D is wrong.

Q87. Answer: (B). Both statements are true, and Statement II (the addition of net indirect taxes) is the correct explanation of Statement I — since net indirect taxes are normally positive, market-price GDP exceeds factor-cost GDP.

Q88. Answer: (D). Statement I is true. Statement II is false: Haryana was carved out of PUNJAB (not Rajasthan), following the Sardar Hukam Singh Committee and the Shah Commission of 1966, not the 1956 States Reorganisation Commission. Hence I is true but II is false.

Q89. Answer: (A). Panipat — three historic battles (A-III); Kurukshetra — Mahabharata battlefield (B-I); Gurugram — IT/corporate hub (C-II); Faridabad — industrial city linked to Baba Farid (D-IV).

Q90. Answer: (C). Haryana’s folk traditions include Ghoomar, Phag, Saang and Khoria. Bihu is from Assam and Garba from Gujarat.

Q91. Answer: (D). The Yamuna forms Haryana’s eastern boundary (A), the Ghaggar is a seasonal river in the State (B), and the Western Yamuna Canal is a major irrigation source (C). The Narmada does not flow through Haryana, so D is wrong.

Q92. Answer: (A). Haryana was a leading State in the Green Revolution and is a major contributor of wheat and rice to the central pool. Tea and coffee are not significant crops of the State.

Q93. Answer: (D). Chandigarh serves as the joint capital of both Haryana and Punjab and is a Union Territory.

Q94. Answer: (D). Each letter is moved two places forward (T→V, E→G, A→C …). Applying +2 to S,T,U,D,E,N,T gives U,V,W,F,G,P,V = UVWFGPV.

Q95. Answer: (D). The only son of the man’s grandfather is the man’s father. The father’s daughter is the man’s sister.

Q96. Answer: (B). The successive differences are 3, 5, 7, 9, 11 (consecutive odd numbers). 27 + 11 = 38.

Q97. Answer: (B). Position from right = total − position from left + 1 = 25 − 11 + 1 = 15th.

Q98. Answer: (C). Interest for 1 year = 1350 − 1260 = Rs.90. Interest for 2 years = Rs.180. Principal = 1260 − 180 = Rs.1,080.

Q99. Answer: (A). Five consecutive even numbers with average 36 are 32, 34, 36, 38, 40. The largest is 40.

Q100. Answer: (A). Above 75 = 40% of 60 = 24. The rest = 36. Of these, below 40 = 25% of 36 = 9. In the 40-to-75 range = 36 − 9 = 27.

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