1. Under BNS S.270, which of the following statements correctly states the rule on public nuisance?
(A) A common nuisance is excused if it produces some convenience to a section of the public.
(B) The act or omission must cause common injury, danger or annoyance to the public or persons using a public right.
(C) Public nuisance is confined to obstruction of highways and does not extend to public health or safety.
(D) Public nuisance requires proof of special damage to one identified complainant in every case.
2. Consider the following statements on BNS Ss.271 and 272:
1. S.271 covers unlawful or negligent acts likely to spread infection of a disease dangerous to life.
2. S.272 requires a malignant act with knowledge or reason to believe that infection is likely to spread.
3. Both provisions require proof that the disease actually spread to another person.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
3. A person knowingly disobeys a valid quarantine rule framed for preventing spread of a disease dangerous to life. Which section is most directly attracted?
(A) BNS S.271, because every breach of quarantine is only negligent spread of infection.
(B) BNS S.272, because breach of quarantine is always malignant spread of infection.
(C) BNS S.273, because it specifically deals with disobedience to quarantine rule.
(D) BNS S.270, because quarantine breach can be punished only as public nuisance.
4. Which one of the following is the correct distinction between BNS S.274 and BNS S.275?
(A) S.274 concerns adulteration of food or drink intended for sale, while S.275 concerns sale of noxious food or drink.
(B) S.274 applies only to drugs, while S.275 applies only to water reservoirs.
(C) S.274 requires actual death, while S.275 requires only breach of contract.
(D) S.274 applies after sale, while S.275 applies only before the article is prepared.
5. Match the BNS provisions with their subject-matter:
A. S.286
B. S.287
C. S.289
D. S.291
1. Fire or combustible matter
2. Poisonous substance
3. Machinery
4. Animal
Code:
(A) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(B) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(C) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(D) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
6. Under BNS S.293, which additional fact makes the offence different from the general punishment for public nuisance under S.292?
(A) The nuisance must be committed by a public servant.
(B) The nuisance must continue after an injunction to discontinue it.
(C) The nuisance must be accompanied by actual death.
(D) The nuisance must involve movement of movable property.
7. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched under BNS Chapter XV/XVI?
(A) S.294 — Sale etc. of obscene books etc.
(B) S.295 — Sale etc. of obscene objects to child.
(C) S.296 — Obscene acts and songs.
(D) S.297 — Disturbing religious assembly.
8. In a prosecution under BNS S.299, which element is essential and cannot be replaced merely by proof of religious disagreement?
(A) Dishonest taking of movable property.
(B) Deliberate and malicious intention to outrage religious feelings of a class.
(C) Previous conviction for a similar religious offence.
(D) Proof that the accused was a public servant.
9. A voluntarily disturbs an assembly lawfully engaged in religious worship. The most appropriate BNS provision is:
(A) S.298
(B) S.299
(C) S.300
(D) S.302
10. Under BSA S.104 and S.105, which statement is legally accurate?
(A) S.104 fixes burden on the party asserting the fact; S.105 places burden on the party who would fail if no evidence were given.
(B) S.104 applies only to criminal cases, while S.105 applies only to civil cases.
(C) S.104 makes every police paper conclusive, while S.105 deals only with presumptions.
(D) S.104 and S.105 both abolish the prosecution’s burden in criminal trials.
11. Under BSA S.108, when an accused relies on a general exception under the BNS, the correct position is:
(A) the prosecution must disprove the exception before leading any evidence.
(B) the burden of proving circumstances bringing the case within the exception lies on the accused.
(C) the Court must presume the exception in favour of the accused.
(D) the exception can be considered only at the stage of sentence.
12. BSA S.109 is most appropriately applied where:
(A) the prosecution relies only on number of witnesses.
(B) a fact is especially within the knowledge of a particular person.
(C) a document is tendered in evidence without objection.
(D) the accused pleads that the charge is defective.
13. In a dispute where parties have acted as landlord and tenant, BSA S.112 places the burden of proving cessation of that relationship on:
(A) the party affirming that the relationship has ceased.
(B) the Court irrespective of pleadings.
(C) the police officer who prepared the site plan.
(D) the party relying on the rent receipt in every case.
14. Under BSA S.114, where good faith of a transaction between a client and advocate is questioned, the burden generally lies on:
(A) the client because he signed the document.
(B) the advocate, being in a position of active confidence.
(C) the attesting witness alone.
(D) the opposite party in every case.
15. Under BNSS S.360, withdrawal from prosecution may result in discharge or acquittal depending principally on:
(A) whether the informant has compounded the offence privately.
(B) whether withdrawal is before charge or after charge/where no charge is required.
(C) whether the accused has filed a bail application.
(D) whether the offence is bailable or non-bailable.
16. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List I
A. Thiamine
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Iodine
List II
1. Scurvy
2. Rickets/osteomalacia
3. Goitre
4. Beriberi
Code:
(A) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(B) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
(C) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(D) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
17. Consider the following statements regarding immunity and vaccination:
1. Active immunity may be produced by infection or vaccination.
2. Passive immunity is always lifelong because it creates memory cells.
3. Booster doses are intended to reinforce immune memory or antibody response.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 2 only
18. Consider the following pairs:
1. BCG — Tuberculosis
2. DPT — Diphtheria, Pertussis and Tetanus
3. ORS — Vaccine against dehydration
4. Insulin — Antibody produced after vaccination
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 3 and 4 only
19. Consider the following statements regarding malaria:
1. It is caused by a protozoan parasite.
2. It is transmitted mainly by the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes.
3. It is caused by deficiency of Vitamin B12.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 2 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
20. Which one of the following statements about nutrition is correct?
(A) Proteins are secondary nutrients and are relevant only when carbohydrates are absent.
(B) Vitamins are required in small quantities but their deficiency may cause specific diseases.
(C) Dietary fibre is digested completely into glucose in the human small intestine.
(D) Minerals are not required if a person takes enough carbohydrates.
21. With reference to Haryana’s cropping pattern, consider the following statements:
1. Wheat and mustard are important rabi crops.
2. Paddy, cotton and bajra are important kharif crops.
3. Tea and rubber are the principal plantation crops of Haryana.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
22. Consider the following agricultural associations in Haryana:
1. Karnal-Kurukshetra-Kaithal belt — paddy/basmati cultivation.
2. Sirsa-Hisar-Fatehabad belt — cotton cultivation.
3. South-western Haryana — bajra and mustard in comparatively drier tracts.
Which of the above associations is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
23. Consider the following statements on irrigation and crop stress in Haryana:
1. Canal irrigation and tube-well irrigation both play an important role.
2. The paddy-wheat cycle has raised concerns relating to groundwater stress in some areas.
3. Haryana agriculture is wholly rainfed and has no canal command areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
24. Murrah buffalo is important in Haryana mainly because:
(A) it is a high milk-yielding buffalo breed associated with the dairy economy.
(B) it is primarily a draught breed valued more for field traction than milk.
(C) it is cultivated as a kharif crop in canal-irrigated areas.
(D) it is a breed maintained mainly for wool and meat in semi-arid tracts.
25. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(A) National Dairy Research Institute — Karnal
(B) Central Institute for Research on Cattle — Karnal
(C) Tea Board headquarters — Gurugram
(D) National Rice Research Institute — Panchkula
26. Special Economic Zones and industrial clusters in Haryana are primarily connected with:
(A) export-oriented activity, manufacturing, logistics and service-sector investment.
(B) replacement of all agriculture by forest land.
(C) administration of village panchayat elections only.
(D) domestic-market retail regulation without any export incentive.
27. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List I
A. Gurugram-Manesar region
B. Panipat
C. Faridabad
D. Karnal
List II
1. Dairy research and agro-based institutions
2. Automobile, corporate and service-sector concentration
3. Handloom/refinery and industrial activity
4. Engineering and manufacturing industry
Code:
(A) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(B) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(C) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(D) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
28. Consider the following statements about Haryana’s agricultural economy:
1. The Green Revolution strengthened wheat and rice productivity in the State.
2. Crop diversification is relevant because of ecological pressure in cereal-dominated areas.
3. Haryana is primarily a coconut and rubber plantation State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
29. Consider the following institutions/associations:
1. NDRI — Karnal
2. Central Institute for Research on Buffaloes — Hisar
3. Surajkund Mela — Basmati research station
Which of the above is/are correctly matched?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
30. Which one of the following is the most accurate statement regarding livestock and dairy in Haryana?
(A) Dairy is confined to urban cooperative marketing and has little relation with village households.
(B) Livestock supports rural income and is linked with improved breeds such as Murrah buffalo.
(C) Livestock is important mainly for draught power, while dairy has only marginal value.
(D) Dairy development in Haryana is unrelated to agriculture and rural livelihoods.
31. Under the Indian Partnership Act, an incoming partner is liable for acts of the firm done before his admission only when:
(A) he merely attends one meeting of the firm.
(B) the firm uses his name without consent.
(C) he agrees to such liability and the creditor accepts the arrangement.
(D) he is related to an existing partner.
32. A retired partner may remain liable to third parties for future acts of the firm if:
(A) the firm earns profit after retirement.
(B) he verbally informs one employee.
(C) he has stopped attending the office.
(D) proper public notice of retirement is not given, subject to statutory exceptions.
33. A minor admitted to the benefits of partnership:
(A) becomes a full partner from the date of admission.
(B) is personally liable for all firm losses like an adult partner.
(C) is not personally liable for firm obligations, though his share in the firm may be liable.
(D) may be arrested for every civil debt of the firm.
34. Expulsion of a partner is valid only where:
(A) the firm wants to avoid all past debts.
(B) one partner is annoyed with him.
(C) the accountant records his name separately.
(D) the power exists by contract, is exercised by majority and is exercised in good faith.
35. Subject to contract between partners, death of a partner:
(A) makes the legal representative a partner only if the firm has more than two partners.
(B) may dissolve the firm and does not automatically make heirs full partners.
(C) transfers all firm liabilities to the Government.
(D) only suspends the firm until legal representatives nominate one partner.
36. A continuing guarantee given to a firm is, in the absence of contract to the contrary, affected by:
(A) mere increase in profit.
(B) change in the firm name without change in partners.
(C) change in the constitution of the firm for future transactions.
(D) increase in the volume of business without change in partners.
37. Partnership by holding out may make a person liable when:
(A) he gives legal advice as an advocate.
(B) he knowingly permits himself to be represented as partner and credit is given on that representation.
(C) he is only a customer of the firm.
(D) he rents premises to the firm.
38. On insolvency of a partner, the insolvent partner generally:
(A) automatically becomes managing partner.
(B) becomes owner of all firm assets.
(C) ceases to be a partner from the date of adjudication, unless law or contract provides otherwise.
(D) continues to bind the firm forever.
39. A retiring partner remains liable for acts done before retirement unless:
(A) the partner stops using the firm seal.
(B) there is novation or release accepted by the concerned creditor.
(C) the firm continues the same business with the same trade name.
(D) the firm changes its visiting card.
40. A minor admitted to benefits must, on attaining majority, elect within the statutory period whether to become partner. If he fails to elect:
(A) all debts become void.
(B) the minor is treated as having rejected partnership unless a fresh deed is executed.
(C) the statutory consequence of becoming partner/liability follows.
(D) he is treated as a stranger from birth.
41. A new partner can be introduced into an existing firm only with:
(A) the consent of all existing partners, subject to contract.
(B) majority decision of partners unless the contract requires unanimity.
(C) approval of every customer.
(D) approval of the Registrar of Firms before admission of the partner.
42. A partner retiring without public notice is protected from liability for future acts as against:
(A) all creditors who had actual dealings and continued to give credit on the old holding out.
(B) every bank regardless of previous dealings.
(C) persons who had no dealings with the firm before retirement and did not know him to be a partner.
(D) all suppliers who earlier dealt with the firm.
43. An heir of a deceased partner is not personally liable for firm debts merely because:
(A) he is described in correspondence as legal representative of the deceased partner.
(B) he inherits property of the deceased partner.
(C) he is the eldest legal representative among the heirs.
(D) he knows one creditor of the firm.
44. After dissolution, a partner’s authority is generally limited to:
(A) selling personal property of other partners.
(B) starting a new unrelated business in the firm’s name.
(C) acts necessary for winding up and completing unfinished transactions.
(D) creating unlimited fresh borrowing for expansion.
45. The foundation of partnership liability to third parties is chiefly:
(A) registration as a company.
(B) ownership of immovable property.
(C) blood relationship among partners.
(D) mutual agency among partners.
ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATIONS
1. Answer: (B)
Explanation: BNS S.270 treats common injury, danger or annoyance to the public as the core of public nuisance.
2. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS Ss.271-272 punish likely spread; actual transmission is not an essential ingredient in every case.
3. Answer: (C)
Explanation: BNS S.273 specifically criminalises disobedience to quarantine rule.
4. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS Ss.274-275 distinguish adulteration from sale of noxious food or drink.
5. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.286 is poisonous substance, S.287 fire, S.289 machinery and S.291 animal.
6. Answer: (B)
Explanation: BNS S.293 is attracted when nuisance continues after injunction to discontinue.
7. Answer: (D)
Explanation: BNS S.297 concerns keeping lottery office; disturbing religious assembly is S.300.
8. Answer: (B)
Explanation: BNS S.299 requires deliberate and malicious intention to outrage religious feelings.
9. Answer: (C)
Explanation: BNS S.300 deals with disturbing a religious assembly.
10. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BSA Ss.104-105 contain the general burden rules based on assertion and consequence of no evidence.
11. Answer: (B)
Explanation: BSA S.108 places the burden of proving exceptions on the accused.
12. Answer: (B)
Explanation: BSA S.109 deals with facts especially within the knowledge of a person.
13. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BSA S.112 shifts the burden to the person who asserts that the shown relationship has ceased.
14. Answer: (B)
Explanation: BSA S.114 places the burden on the party standing in active confidence.
15. Answer: (B)
Explanation: BNSS S.360 links the result of withdrawal with the stage of the case.
16. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Thiamine deficiency causes beriberi, Vitamin C deficiency causes scurvy, Vitamin D deficiency affects bone mineralisation, and iodine deficiency causes goitre.
17. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Active immunity and booster response involve immune memory; passive immunity is not necessarily lifelong.
18. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BCG and DPT are correctly matched; ORS is not a vaccine and insulin is not an antibody.
19. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Malaria is protozoan and mosquito-borne, not a vitamin-deficiency disease.
20. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Vitamins are micronutrients but deficiency may produce specific disorders.
21. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Wheat/mustard are rabi crops and paddy/cotton/bajra are kharif crops in Haryana.
22. Answer: (D)
Explanation: These crop-region associations broadly reflect Haryana’s agricultural geography.
23. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Haryana uses canal and tube-well irrigation, and groundwater stress is a recognised concern.
24. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Murrah is a well-known high milk-yielding buffalo breed.
25. Answer: (A)
Explanation: The National Dairy Research Institute is located at Karnal.
26. Answer: (A)
Explanation: SEZs and industrial clusters are linked with export, manufacturing, logistics and services.
27. Answer: (A)
Explanation: The listed places are correctly associated with these economic or institutional features.
28. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Haryana benefited from the Green Revolution and now faces diversification concerns.
29. Answer: (A)
Explanation: NDRI is at Karnal and CIRB is at Hisar; Surajkund is a crafts fair.
30. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Livestock and dairy are important to rural income and breed improvement in Haryana.
31. Answer: (C)
Explanation: An incoming partner is not automatically liable for old debts.
32. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Public notice is important to limit liability for future acts.
33. Answer: (C)
Explanation: A minor can be admitted to benefits but not made personally liable as a full partner.
34. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Expulsion must satisfy contractual authority, majority and good faith requirements.
35. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Death may dissolve the firm unless otherwise agreed; heirs do not automatically become partners.
36. Answer: (C)
Explanation: A change in firm constitution may revoke a continuing guarantee for future transactions.
37. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Holding out depends on representation and reliance by third parties.
38. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Insolvency affects the status and authority of a partner.
39. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Past liability requires release/novation as against creditors.
40. Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Act fixes consequences when the minor elects or fails to elect.
41. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Admission of a partner generally needs consent of all partners, subject to contract.
42. Answer: (C)
Explanation: The statute recognises exceptions to liability after retirement.
43. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Heirs do not automatically become partners or personally liable.
44. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Authority after dissolution continues only for winding up and completing unfinished transactions.
45. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Mutual agency is central to partnership.