1. Under BNSS S.308, evidence in an inquiry or trial is ordinarily required to be taken:
(A) only in the presence of the complainant.
(B) in the presence of the accused, or when personal attendance is dispensed with, in the presence of his pleader.
(C) only after the accused has entered defence evidence.
(D) in the absence of the accused whenever the prosecution requests so.
2. Which provision of BNSS specifically deals with record of examination of accused, as distinct from the power to examine the accused?
(A) S.316
(B) S.351
(C) S.359
(D) S.360
3. Consider the following statements regarding BNSS S.341:
1. It recognises legal aid to accused at State expense in specified situations.
2. It is linked with fairness of trial and inability to engage counsel.
3. It applies only after conviction and sentence.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
4. Under BNSS Ss.343 to 345, tender of pardon to an accomplice is legally connected with:
(A) securing full and true disclosure and consequences of non-compliance with conditions of pardon.
(B) automatic withdrawal of every charge against all co-accused.
(C) compounding of every non-compoundable offence.
(D) conversion of a sessions trial into a civil proceeding.
5. BNSS S.348 empowers the Court to summon a material witness or examine a person present. Which limitation is most accurate?
(A) The power is only administrative and cannot affect evidence.
(B) It may be exercised where evidence appears essential to a just decision of the case.
(C) It is available only before charge is framed and never during trial.
(D) It is confined to witnesses named in the charge-sheet.
6. Under BNSS S.351, examination of accused is best understood as:
(A) a substitute for proof of prosecution evidence.
(B) an opportunity to explain circumstances appearing in evidence against him.
(C) a compulsory oath-bound defence testimony.
(D) a power available only after conviction.
7. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(A) BNSS S.353 — Accused person to be competent witness.
(B) BNSS S.353 — Withdrawal from prosecution.
(C) BNSS S.353 — Compounding of offences.
(D) BNSS S.353 — Trial in absentia of proclaimed offender.
8. Under BNSS S.356, inquiry, trial or judgment in absentia is specially connected with:
(A) an absconding proclaimed offender and compliance with statutory conditions.
(B) every accused who misses one hearing due to illness.
(C) only summons cases involving fine.
(D) only civil contempt proceedings.
9. BNSS S.358 permits proceeding against a person not originally arraigned when:
(A) the complainant orally requests addition of that person before arguments.
(B) evidence appears that such person has committed an offence for which he could be tried together with the accused.
(C) the police officer suspects his involvement after judgment.
(D) the person is named in a newspaper report.
10. Which statement correctly reflects BNSS S.359 on compounding?
(A) All offences may be compounded if parties agree.
(B) Compounding is allowed only as provided in the section and has the effect prescribed by it.
(C) Compounding and withdrawal under S.360 are identical.
(D) Compounding can be ordered by police without Court scrutiny.
11. Under BSA S.115, the presumption as to certain offences arises only when:
(A) an FIR is registered for any offence.
(B) statutory conditions in the provision concerning specified offences and circumstances are satisfied.
(C) the accused refuses to answer all questions.
(D) the complainant files an affidavit.
12. Under BSA S.119, the Court may presume existence of certain facts. Which statement is correct?
(A) It is a rule of mandatory conclusive proof in every case.
(B) It permits presumptions based on common course of natural events, human conduct and business, subject to facts of the case.
(C) It applies only to public documents.
(D) It bars rebuttal by the accused.
13. Under BSA S.121, estoppel arises primarily from:
(A) representation, belief and action upon that belief by another person.
(B) mere filing of a plaint.
(C) the existence of a criminal charge.
(D) the status of a witness as official witness.
14. Under BSA S.122, a tenant is generally estopped during continuance of tenancy from denying:
(A) the landlord’s title at the beginning of the tenancy.
(B) every subsequent derivative title of a stranger.
(C) all defects in any future sale deed.
(D) the jurisdiction of the criminal Court.
15. Which option correctly combines the provisions?
(A) BNS S.299 requires deliberate and malicious intention; BNSS S.360 requires Court consent for withdrawal by Public Prosecutor/Assistant Public Prosecutor.
(B) BNS S.299 punishes all criticism of religion; BNSS S.360 permits withdrawal by informant alone.
(C) BNS S.299 applies only to burial places; BNSS S.360 applies only after conviction.
(D) BNS S.299 requires actual riot; BNSS S.360 is the same as compounding.
16. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List I
A. Kuchipudi
B. Sattriya
C. Mohiniyattam
D. Kathak
List II
1. Assam
2. Kerala
3. Andhra Pradesh
4. North Indian classical tradition
Code:
(A) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(B) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
(C) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(D) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
17. Consider the following pairs of painting traditions and States:
1. Madhubani — Bihar
2. Pattachitra — Odisha
3. Phad — Rajasthan
4. Kalamkari — Andhra Pradesh/Telangana region
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 3 and 4 only
18. With reference to Haryana’s cultural traditions, consider the following statements:
1. Saang is a traditional folk-theatre form.
2. Ragini is associated with Haryanvi folk music and oral performance.
3. Surajkund Mela is held in Faridabad district and is associated with crafts and culture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 3 only
19. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
(A) Yakshagana — Karnataka
(B) Lavani — Maharashtra
(C) Chhau — Kerala
(D) Bihu — Assam
20. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List I
A. Teej
B. Onam
C. Hornbill Festival
D. Baisakhi
List II
1. Nagaland
2. Punjab-Haryana harvest tradition
3. Haryana/Rajasthan cultural observance
4. Kerala
Code:
(A) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(B) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(C) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(D) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
21. Which one of the following is the most accurate statement about Surajkund International Crafts Mela?
(A) It is primarily an industrial technology fair held in Gurugram.
(B) It is a crafts and culture fair associated with Faridabad district of Haryana.
(C) It is a Buddhist cave festival held in Maharashtra.
(D) It is a desert camel fair held in Jaisalmer only.
22. Consider the following statements:
1. Dhrupad is associated with the Hindustani classical music tradition.
2. Qawwali is linked with Sufi devotional performance.
3. Ragini has a strong association with Haryana’s oral folk performance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2 only
(D) 3 only
23. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(A) Warli painting — Maharashtra
(B) Kangra painting — Tamil Nadu
(C) Kalamkari — Rajasthan
(D) Madhubani — Odisha
24. What is the total production in 2025?
(A) 430
(B) 450
(C) 470
(D) 400
25. The increase in total production from 2024 to 2025 is:
(A) 50
(B) 80
(C) 100
(D) 120
26. Which commodity shows the highest percentage increase from 2024 to 2025?
(A) Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Cotton
(D) Mustard
27. The ratio of wheat production to rice production in 2025 is:
(A) 4 : 5
(B) 5 : 4
(C) 3 : 2
(D) 25 : 24
28. The average production per commodity in 2024 is:
(A) 82.5
(B) 85
(C) 87.5
(D) 90
29. Cotton’s share in total production of 2025 is nearest to:
(A) 18.18%
(B) 20.00%
(C) 22.22%
(D) 25.00%
30. If mustard production in 2026 rises by 25% over 2025, its 2026 production will be:
(A) 90
(B) 95
(C) 100
(D) 110
31. Under the Indian Partnership Act, registration of a firm is:
(A) a condition precedent for every contract entered into by the firm.
(B) compulsory before the firm can exist.
(C) optional, but non-registration produces specified disabilities.
(D) irrelevant for all suits and proceedings.
32. Consider the following statements on an unregistered firm:
1. It is generally barred from suing to enforce rights arising from contract.
2. The bar is subject to statutory exceptions.
3. Registration converts the firm into a company.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1 only
33. A suit by a partner against a firm to enforce a right arising from contract is affected by non-registration when:
(A) the firm has no printed letterhead.
(B) the statutory bar under the Partnership Act applies.
(C) the firm has fewer than five partners.
(D) the partners are relatives.
34. A firm may be dissolved by:
(A) unilateral act of one creditor making himself partner.
(B) change in the firm’s trade name without change in partners.
(C) unilateral notice by one creditor to the firm.
(D) consent of all partners or in accordance with contract between them.
35. Subject to contract between partners, a firm may dissolve on:
(A) every delay in payment of electricity bill.
(B) minor disagreement between two partners unrelated to the business.
(C) change in accounting software used by the firm.
(D) expiry of term, completion of adventure, death or insolvency of a partner.
36. The Court may dissolve a firm on grounds including:
(A) purchase of a new ledger book.
(B) occasional disagreement on routine management without persistent breach.
(C) the firm making profit.
(D) insanity, permanent incapacity, misconduct, persistent breach, transfer of interest or just and equitable ground.
37. Goodwill of a firm after dissolution is:
(A) a personal reputation incapable of valuation after dissolution.
(B) taken over by the Registrar without settlement of accounts.
(C) irrelevant for settlement of accounts.
(D) an asset which may be sold separately or with other property of the firm.
38. Public notice of dissolution is important because it:
(A) cancels all past debts automatically.
(B) is relevant only when the firm has immovable property.
(C) helps protect partners from liability for future acts of former partners.
(D) creates a new company.
39. Where a partnership contract is rescinded for fraud or misrepresentation, the innocent partner may claim:
(A) ownership of all property without accounts.
(B) avoidance of all liabilities owed to third parties.
(C) statutory rights such as lien and indemnity where applicable.
(D) cancellation of all third-party claims.
40. In settlement of accounts after dissolution, losses including deficiencies of capital are ordinarily paid:
(A) only out of goodwill before capital is considered.
(B) according to the statutory order and agreement between partners.
(C) by the oldest partner alone.
(D) by customers who had continuing dealings with the dissolved firm.
41. After dissolution, the authority of partners continues only so far as necessary:
(A) to borrow unlimited amounts for expansion.
(B) to wind up the affairs of the firm and complete unfinished transactions.
(C) to begin any new business without consent.
(D) to sell private assets of other partners.
42. A partner’s lien in the context of rescission for fraud or misrepresentation is meant to protect:
(A) the registrar of firms.
(B) a creditor who had no connection with the fraud.
(C) a stranger to the firm.
(D) the partner entitled to rescind from loss caused by the fraud or misrepresentation.
43. Registration of a firm requires filing prescribed particulars with:
(A) the Registrar of Companies.
(B) the Sub-Divisional Magistrate of the place of business.
(C) the Registrar of Firms.
(D) the Election Commission.
44. Non-registration does not ordinarily bar:
(A) every proceeding in India.
(B) claims not based on contractual rights of the firm.
(C) all suits by partners for accounts after dissolution.
(D) claims expressly saved by the Partnership Act, such as certain dissolution/account-related claims.
45. A dissolved firm is different from a reconstituted firm because:
(A) both result only in a change of firm name.
(B) dissolution means only change of address.
(C) reconstitution ends all partner liabilities as if the firm were dissolved.
(D) dissolution ends the relation of partnership among all partners, whereas reconstitution changes the composition while business may continue.
ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATIONS
1. Answer: (B)
Explanation: BNSS S.308 embodies the rule of evidence being taken in the presence of accused or pleader where attendance is dispensed with.
2. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.316 concerns record of examination; S.351 deals with power to examine accused.
3. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.341 concerns legal aid during proceedings, not merely after conviction.
4. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS Ss.343-345 regulate pardon to accomplice and trial on breach of conditions.
5. Answer: (B)
Explanation: BNSS S.348 is a just-decision provision relating to material evidence.
6. Answer: (B)
Explanation: BNSS S.351 corresponds to the accused’s opportunity to explain incriminating circumstances.
7. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.353 deals with accused person being a competent witness.
8. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.356 is an exceptional procedure for proclaimed offenders.
9. Answer: (B)
Explanation: BNSS S.358 permits adding a person on evidence indicating his involvement.
10. Answer: (B)
Explanation: BNSS S.359 strictly governs compounding and its effect.
11. Answer: (B)
Explanation: BSA S.115 is a limited statutory presumption and not a general presumption of guilt.
12. Answer: (B)
Explanation: BSA S.119 permits discretionary presumptions from ordinary human and business experience.
13. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BSA S.121 is based on representation and reliance.
14. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BSA S.122 contains tenant’s estoppel as to landlord’s title at commencement.
15. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Both statements correctly state the core of BNS S.299 and BNSS S.360.
16. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Kuchipudi, Sattriya, Mohiniyattam and Kathak are correctly matched with their traditions.
17. Answer: (C)
Explanation: All four painting traditions are correctly matched.
18. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Saang, Ragini and Surajkund Mela are all correctly associated with Haryana culture.
19. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Chhau is associated with eastern Indian traditions, not Kerala.
20. Answer: (A)
Explanation: The festivals are correctly matched with their States/regions.
21. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Surajkund is a major crafts and culture fair in Faridabad, Haryana.
22. Answer: (B)
Explanation: All three statements correctly identify music and folk-performance traditions.
23. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Warli painting is associated with Maharashtra.
24. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Total production in 2025 is 150 + 120 + 100 + 80 = 450.
25. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Total production increased from 350 to 450, an increase of 100.
26. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Mustard increased from 50 to 80, which is 60%, the highest.
27. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Wheat : Rice in 2025 is 150 : 120 = 5 : 4.
28. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Average for 2024 is (120 + 100 + 80 + 50) / 4 = 87.5.
29. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Cotton share is 100/450 × 100 = 22.22% approximately.
30. Answer: (C)
Explanation: A 25% rise over 80 gives 100.
31. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Registration is not a condition of existence, but non-registration has statutory consequences.
32. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Non-registration creates a contractual suit bar with exceptions; it does not convert the firm into a company.
33. Answer: (B)
Explanation: The statutory disability applies to enforcement of contractual rights in specified cases.
34. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Dissolution may take place by consent or according to contract.
35. Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Act recognises dissolution on specified events, subject to contract.
36. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Judicial dissolution is available on recognised statutory grounds.
37. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Goodwill is treated as an asset in dissolution.
38. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Public notice limits liability for future acts as against third parties.
39. Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Act grants protective rights to the innocent partner in such cases.
40. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Settlement follows the Act subject to contract.
41. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Post-dissolution authority is limited to winding up and unfinished transactions.
42. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Lien and indemnity protect the innocent partner.
43. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Registration is made through the Registrar of Firms.
44. Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Act saves certain categories despite non-registration.
45. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Dissolution and reconstitution have distinct legal effects.