1. Under BNS S.303, theft is complete when the accused dishonestly moves movable property out of another’s possession without consent. Which additional statement is correct?
(A) Severance of a thing attached to earth can never amount to theft.
(B) Moving caused by the same act which effects severance may amount to theft.
(C) Theft requires permanent deprivation in every case.
(D) Consent is immaterial if property is movable.
2. Which feature most accurately distinguishes BNS S.304 snatching from ordinary theft under S.303?
(A) Snatching requires transfer of immovable property by forged deed.
(B) Snatching involves sudden or forcible seizure/grabbing from a person.
(C) Snatching applies only where the accused is a public servant.
(D) Snatching requires five or more persons conjointly.
3. BNS S.307 punishes theft after preparation for causing death, hurt or restraint. Which situation best fits the aggravated section?
(A) Theft committed after preparing means to restrain the victim during escape.
(B) Theft of a movable article without any preparation or confrontation.
(C) Mere possession of stolen property after the theft.
(D) Dishonest concealment of property from creditors.
4. Match the BNS provisions:
A. S.308
B. S.309
C. S.310
D. S.314
1. Dacoity
2. Robbery
3. Extortion
4. Dishonest misappropriation of property
Code:
(A) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(B) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(C) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
(D) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
5. Under BNS S.310, dacoity requires:
(A) robbery committed or attempted by five or more persons conjointly.
(B) theft by a clerk or servant from master’s property.
(C) receiving stolen property knowing it to be stolen.
(D) mischief causing damage above a specified amount.
6. Under BNS S.316, criminal breach of trust is distinguished from cheating primarily because it requires:
(A) entrustment or dominion over property followed by dishonest misappropriation or use contrary to law/contract.
(B) deception at inception without entrustment.
(C) public nuisance affecting the community.
(D) making a false document.
7. Which statement correctly states BNS S.317 on stolen property?
(A) Property becomes stolen only while it remains in the thief’s hands.
(B) Property obtained by theft, extortion, robbery, criminal misappropriation or criminal breach of trust is covered, subject to statutory limits.
(C) Stolen property excludes property obtained by robbery.
(D) Stolen property includes every disputed civil debt.
8. In cheating under BNS S.318, which ingredient is central?
(A) Mere breach of promise after a genuine contract.
(B) Deception with fraudulent or dishonest inducement as contemplated by the section.
(C) Actual delivery of immovable property in every case.
(D) Five or more persons acting together.
9. Under BNSS S.392, judgment in a criminal trial must ordinarily be pronounced:
(A) only in chambers without notifying parties.
(B) in open Court by a recognised mode and within the statutory time framework.
(C) only after the appellate court grants permission.
(D) orally without any written or signed record.
10. BNSS S.393 requires a judgment of conviction to specify, among other matters:
(A) only the name of the investigating officer.
(B) the offence, the law/section under which conviction is recorded, and punishment awarded.
(C) only the complainant’s valuation of loss.
(D) only the list of witnesses examined.
11. Under BNSS S.407, a death sentence passed by a Court of Session:
(A) must be submitted to the High Court for confirmation.
(B) is executable immediately on pronouncement.
(C) is confirmed by the District Magistrate.
(D) automatically stands commuted to imprisonment for life.
12. Which provision states the general rule that no appeal shall lie except as provided by the Sanhita or other law?
(A) BNSS S.392
(B) BNSS S.407
(C) BNSS S.413
(D) BNSS S.438
13. Under BSA S.124, competency of a witness turns principally on whether the witness can:
(A) understand the questions and give rational answers.
(B) produce a government identity card.
(C) speak only in the language of the Court.
(D) prove documentary title to the subject-matter.
14. Under BSA S.132, professional communication privilege does not protect:
(A) communications made in furtherance of an illegal purpose.
(B) communications merely because the matter is civil.
(C) every communication made before litigation begins.
(D) every document kept in an advocate’s office.
15. BSA S.139 is correctly stated by which proposition?
(A) No fact can be proved unless supported by at least two witnesses.
(B) No particular number of witnesses is required for proof of any fact.
(C) Only official witnesses can prove a criminal charge.
(D) Oral evidence must always be corroborated by documentary evidence.
16. Consider the following statements relating to the Battles of Plassey and Buxar:
1. Plassey was fought in 1757 and strengthened the Company’s political influence in Bengal.
2. Buxar was fought in 1764 against a coalition including Mir Qasim, Shuja-ud-Daulah and Shah Alam II.
3. The grant of Diwani rights to the Company followed the developments after Buxar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
17. Dual Government in Bengal is correctly explained by which of the following statements?
1. Revenue control came effectively under the Company.
2. Nominal civil administration remained with the Nawab’s machinery.
3. It was introduced after the transfer of power to the Crown in 1858.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
18. Under the Subsidiary Alliance system:
1. the Indian ruler generally accepted a British subsidiary force.
2. the ruler’s external relations came under British control.
3. Lord Wellesley is closely associated with its expansion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 3 only
19. Which one of the following sets correctly contains territories associated with the Doctrine of Lapse under Lord Dalhousie?
(A) Satara, Jhansi and Nagpur
(B) Awadh, Bengal and Mysore
(C) Hyderabad, Travancore and Cochin
(D) Punjab, Sindh and Kashmir
20. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List I
A. Regulating Act, 1773
B. Pitt’s India Act, 1784
C. Charter Act, 1833
D. Government of India Act, 1858
List II
1. Board of Control
2. Governor-General of Bengal
3. End of Company rule after Revolt
4. Governor-General of India
Code:
(A) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(B) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(C) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(D) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
21. Which of the following correctly explains the historical significance of the Treaty of Allahabad, 1765?
(A) It created the Indian National Congress.
(B) It gave the Company Diwani rights over Bengal, Bihar and Orissa.
(C) It introduced Dyarchy in provinces.
(D) It annexed Punjab under the Doctrine of Lapse.
22. Consider the following statements on British expansion:
1. Subsidiary Alliance was primarily a diplomatic-military instrument.
2. Doctrine of Lapse was linked with annexation on failure of a natural heir in certain States.
3. Plassey and Buxar both strengthened Company power in eastern India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 only
23. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List I
A. Surajkund Mela
B. Kapal Mochan Mela
C. International Gita Mahotsav
D. Pinjore Heritage Festival
List II
1. Kurukshetra
2. Panchkula
3. Faridabad
4. Yamunanagar
Code:
(A) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(B) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(C) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(D) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
24. Which one of the following correctly describes Saang in Haryana?
(A) A traditional folk-theatre form involving dialogue, music and performance.
(B) A seasonal harvest song tradition of coastal India.
(C) A Mughal revenue settlement.
(D) A temple dance ritual of eastern India.
25. Pandit Lakhmi Chand is remembered in Haryana primarily for his contribution to:
(A) classical khayal singing of the Gwalior gharana.
(B) Haryanvi folk theatre, Ragini and Saang tradition.
(C) Rajasthani miniature painting.
(D) courtly Urdu drama of Awadh.
26. Consider the following statements regarding Haryana’s cultural identity:
1. Kurukshetra is associated with the Mahabharata and Bhagavad Gita tradition.
2. Teej is an important festival in the region.
3. Haryanvi Ragini belongs to a coastal maritime song tradition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
27. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
(A) Surajkund — Crafts Mela
(B) Kurukshetra — Gita tradition
(C) Pinjore — Heritage garden/festival association
(D) Sultanpur — Desert livestock fair
28. Traditional male and female rural attire commonly associated with Haryana includes:
(A) dhoti-kurta and ghagra-odhni/chunni.
(B) phiran and karakul cap.
(C) mekhela-chador and eri shawl.
(D) mundu and angavastram.
29. Consider the following cultural forms:
1. Ragini
2. Saang
3. Ghoomar
4. Bharatanatyam
Which of the above are most closely connected with north Indian/Haryana-Rajasthan folk-cultural space rather than South Indian classical dance?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
30. Which one of the following combinations is most appropriate for Haryana cultural revision?
(A) Saang, Ragini, Teej, Surajkund, Kurukshetra
(B) Kathakali, Onam, backwaters, rubber, coconut
(C) Hornbill, Naga shawls, Kohima, bamboo dance
(D) Bihu, Majuli, Kamakhya, Brahmaputra valley
31. Under the Sale of Goods Act, a contract of sale requires:
(A) goods, two parties, money consideration and transfer or agreement to transfer property in goods.
(B) transfer of possession without any agreement as to price.
(C) identified goods and compulsory registration before the Registrar in every case.
(D) exchange of goods without any money consideration.
32. Goods under the Sale of Goods Act mean:
(A) money alone.
(B) movable property including money and actionable claims.
(C) movable property other than actionable claims and money, including specified items such as stock, shares and growing crops agreed to be severed.
(D) land and benefits arising out of land only.
33. A present sale of future goods generally operates as:
(A) a mortgage of land.
(B) a pledge of immovable property.
(C) a completed sale at once.
(D) an agreement to sell.
34. In a sale, as distinguished from an agreement to sell:
(A) there is no price.
(B) the subject must be immovable property.
(C) property in goods is transferred immediately.
(D) property passes only after actual physical delivery.
35. Which statement is correct regarding price in a contract of sale?
(A) Price means money consideration; if partly money and partly goods, the substance must be examined.
(B) Price must be fixed in the contract itself and can never be left to a third party.
(C) Price may be wholly non-monetary in an ordinary sale of goods.
(D) Price may be replaced by goods alone without affecting the nature of sale.
36. Property in wholly unascertained goods:
(A) passes when the buyer pays the whole price, even if goods remain unascertained.
(B) passes only when a delivery note is signed, even if goods are not ascertained.
(C) passes by payment of earnest money alone, though goods remain unascertained.
(D) does not pass until the goods are ascertained.
37. A contract for sale of specific goods which have perished without the seller’s knowledge at the time of contract is:
(A) treated as a partnership.
(B) converted into lease.
(C) enforceable if the price had been fixed before the goods perished.
(D) void as per the statutory rule.
38. If goods perish after agreement to sell but before risk passes to the buyer, the agreement:
(A) remains enforceable if the seller was not at fault.
(B) automatically becomes a gift.
(C) may be avoided under the statutory rule.
(D) passes risk to the buyer by reason of the agreement alone.
39. Bailment is different from sale because bailment transfers:
(A) shares in a company.
(B) possession but not property in goods.
(C) ownership of goods.
(D) title in immovable land.
40. Documents of title to goods are important because they:
(A) relate only to immovable land.
(B) represent control over goods in commercial transactions.
(C) are irrelevant in mercantile law.
(D) are merely receipts and can never represent possession or control.
41. In an agreement to sell, risk ordinarily follows property unless:
(A) delivery is delayed due to the buyer’s request.
(B) the buyer has greater commercial experience than the seller.
(C) the goods are packed in paper.
(D) the parties agree otherwise.
42. A contract of sale may be made:
(A) only by a written invoice signed by both parties.
(B) in writing, orally, or partly in writing and partly by conduct, subject to the Act.
(C) only by written contract, though registration is not necessary.
(D) only after payment of the entire price in advance.
43. The subject-matter of a contract of sale must be:
(A) goods.
(B) services attached to immovable property.
(C) immovable property only.
(D) an actionable claim alone.
44. An agreement to sell becomes a sale when:
(A) the time elapses or the conditions are fulfilled subject to which property is to be transferred.
(B) the buyer gives notice that he is ready to take delivery.
(C) the seller issues a quotation describing the goods.
(D) the seller changes his address.
45. Where consideration is wholly in goods without money consideration, the transaction is ordinarily:
(A) mortgage.
(B) barter/exchange rather than sale.
(C) wakf.
(D) sale.
ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATIONS
1. Answer: (B)
Explanation: BNS S.303 includes movement following severance and focuses on dishonest moving without consent.
2. Answer: (B)
Explanation: BNS S.304 concerns sudden or forcible seizure or grabbing from a person.
3. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.307 is attracted by preparation for death, hurt or restraint connected with theft.
4. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.308 extortion, S.309 robbery, S.310 dacoity and S.314 misappropriation are correctly matched.
5. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.310 makes five or more persons conjointly committing or attempting robbery the basis of dacoity.
6. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.316 is founded on entrustment or dominion and dishonest breach thereof.
7. Answer: (B)
Explanation: BNS S.317 defines stolen property by reference to specified property offences.
8. Answer: (B)
Explanation: BNS S.318 requires deception and fraudulent/dishonest inducement.
9. Answer: (B)
Explanation: BNSS S.392 deals with pronouncement of judgment in open Court and related requirements.
10. Answer: (B)
Explanation: BNSS S.393 deals with contents of judgment including offence, section and sentence.
11. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.407 requires submission of death sentence to High Court for confirmation.
12. Answer: (C)
Explanation: BNSS S.413 contains the general rule that appeal is statutory.
13. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BSA S.124 makes capacity to understand and answer rationally central to competency.
14. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BSA S.132 excludes communications made in furtherance of illegal purpose and certain crime/fraud matters.
15. Answer: (B)
Explanation: BSA S.139 rejects a fixed numerical requirement for witnesses.
16. Answer: (D)
Explanation: All three statements correctly state the significance of Plassey, Buxar and Diwani.
17. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Dual Government separated effective revenue control from nominal administration.
18. Answer: (C)
Explanation: All three statements correctly describe the Subsidiary Alliance system.
19. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Satara, Jhansi and Nagpur are standard examples connected with the Doctrine of Lapse.
20. Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Acts are correctly matched with their principal features.
21. Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Treaty of Allahabad is connected with grant of Diwani rights.
22. Answer: (B)
Explanation: All three statements correctly describe modes of British expansion.
23. Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Haryana fairs/festivals are correctly matched with their locations.
24. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Saang is a folk-theatre tradition of Haryana.
25. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Pandit Lakhmi Chand is associated with Haryana’s folk/Ragini/Saang tradition.
26. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Kurukshetra and Teej are correctly connected; Ragini is not a coastal maritime form.
27. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Sultanpur is known for bird sanctuary/wetland association, not a Haryana crafts-fair centre.
28. Answer: (A)
Explanation: These are traditional rural attire associations in the region.
29. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Ragini, Saang and Ghoomar belong to the north Indian folk-cultural sphere; Bharatanatyam is South Indian classical.
30. Answer: (A)
Explanation: The combination correctly reflects Haryana cultural themes.
31. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Sale of goods involves transfer/agreement to transfer property in goods for a price.
32. Answer: (C)
Explanation: The definition covers movable property excluding money and actionable claims, with specified inclusions.
33. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Future goods cannot be presently owned/transferred as sale; the contract operates as agreement to sell.
34. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Sale transfers property immediately; agreement to sell transfers later or subject to conditions.
35. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Sale requires money consideration, but mixed consideration may still be sale depending on substance.
36. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Property cannot pass in wholly unascertained goods until ascertainment.
37. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Perishing of specific goods before contract may make the contract void.
38. Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Sale of Goods Act contains rules where goods perish before risk passes.
39. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Bailment transfers possession, not ownership.
40. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Documents of title have commercial significance.
41. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Risk generally follows property subject to agreement.
42. Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Act permits various modes of making a contract of sale.
43. Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Act governs sale of goods.
44. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Agreement to sell converts into sale upon time/condition for transfer.
45. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Sale requires money consideration.