1. Under BNSS S.395, compensation can be ordered in a judgment primarily when:
(A) the Court records conviction and directs application of fine/compensation as permitted by law.
(B) the police officer estimates loss before trial.
(C) the complainant files a civil suit after acquittal.
(D) the accused applies for bail.
2. BNSS S.396 is best described as dealing with:
(A) victim compensation scheme.
(B) confirmation of death sentence.
(C) compounding of offences.
(D) power to summon material witness.
3. Under BNSS S.397, treatment of victims is particularly linked with:
(A) medical treatment duties in specified serious offences.
(B) appellate powers of the High Court.
(C) transfer of criminal cases.
(D) forfeiture of bonds.
4. Under BNSS S.398, the statutory subject is:
(A) witness protection scheme.
(B) discharge in warrant cases.
(C) plea bargaining application.
(D) language of Courts.
5. Which one is NOT correctly matched?
(A) BNSS S.403 — Court not to alter judgment.
(B) BNSS S.407 — Sentence of death to be submitted for confirmation.
(C) BNSS S.413 — General bar on appeal except as provided.
(D) BNSS S.435 — Power to summon material witness.
6. Under BNSS S.419, appeal against acquittal is governed by:
(A) a specific statutory framework and leave/route prescribed by law.
(B) an unrestricted private right of every informant in every case.
(C) police permission without judicial scrutiny.
(D) automatic review by the trial court.
7. Under BNSS S.427, the appellate court’s powers include reversing or altering findings/sentence only:
(A) within the powers conferred by the Sanhita after hearing according to law.
(B) on administrative request of the jail superintendent.
(C) by treating appeal as a fresh investigation.
(D) without looking at trial record.
8. BNSS S.430 is most directly concerned with:
(A) suspension of sentence pending appeal and release on bail.
(B) recording of evidence in summons cases.
(C) examination of accused.
(D) public nuisance.
9. Under BNSS S.438, revisional jurisdiction begins with the power to:
(A) call for and examine records for satisfying legality, correctness or propriety within statutory limits.
(B) conduct a second trial in every acquittal.
(C) substitute investigation by police.
(D) compound all offences.
10. Which statement correctly reflects the limitation of revision under BNSS Chapter XXXII?
(A) Revision is ordinarily not a full rehearing of facts like a regular appeal.
(B) Revision always permits conviction after acquittal without safeguards.
(C) Revision is available only to the complainant.
(D) Revision cannot correct jurisdictional error.
11. Under BSA S.125, a witness unable to communicate verbally may give evidence:
(A) by writing or signs made intelligible to the Court.
(B) only through the investigating officer’s summary.
(C) only if two interpreters are examined as eye-witnesses.
(D) only after being declared hostile.
12. Under BSA S.126, the competency of husband and wife as witnesses is treated:
(A) as a matter governed by the statutory rule, not by automatic incompetency merely due to marriage.
(B) as absolute incompetency in all criminal cases.
(C) as competency only in civil cases.
(D) as dependent solely on consent of the opposite party.
13. Under BSA S.128, communications during marriage are protected subject to statutory exceptions. Which answer is closest?
(A) A spouse may freely disclose every marital communication in all proceedings.
(B) Marital communications are protected except where the law itself permits disclosure.
(C) Protection applies only after divorce.
(D) Protection applies only to written communications.
14. Under BSA S.138, an accomplice is:
(A) competent as a witness, though appreciation of such evidence requires caution as per law.
(B) incompetent in every criminal trial.
(C) competent only if he is not involved in the offence.
(D) treated as a judge’s witness and not subject to cross-examination.
15. Under BSA S.137, a witness is not excused from answering merely because the answer may incriminate him, but the section also provides protection regarding:
(A) use of compelled answer subject to the statutory rule.
(B) automatic pardon in the main case.
(C) permanent immunity for all offences.
(D) deletion of the question from the record.
16. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List I
A. Nagara
B. Dravida
C. Vesara
D. Indo-Islamic architecture
List II
1. Hybrid/deccan temple features
2. Curvilinear shikhara
3. Arches, domes and minarets in many monuments
4. Vimana and gopuram features
Code:
(A) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(B) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
(C) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(D) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
17. Consider the following statements regarding stupas:
1. They are associated with Buddhist relic worship and circumambulation.
2. Sanchi is an important stupa site.
3. Toranas and harmika are architectural features associated with stupas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2 only
(D) 3 only
18. Consider the following pairs:
1. Ajanta — Buddhist murals and rock-cut caves
2. Ellora — multi-religious rock-cut monuments including Kailasa temple
3. Elephanta — Shaiva cave sculptures
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
19. Harappan urban planning is best identified by:
(A) Gothic spires and stained-glass windows.
(B) planned streets, drainage system and baked-brick structures.
(C) exclusively circular huts without drainage.
(D) large Roman amphitheatres.
20. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
(A) Group of Monuments at Hampi — Karnataka
(B) Rani ki Vav — Gujarat
(C) Khajuraho Group of Monuments — Madhya Pradesh
(D) Konark Sun Temple — Haryana
21. Which of the following is a correct temple-architecture statement?
(A) Garbhagriha refers to the sanctum where the principal deity is placed.
(B) Mandapa means a sea port used for trade.
(C) Shikhara is a Mughal revenue term.
(D) Mandapa is the innermost sanctum of the temple.
22. Consider the following painting traditions:
1. Warli — Maharashtra
2. Madhubani — Bihar
3. Pattachitra — Odisha
4. Kalighat — Bengal
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4 only
23. Who sits immediately to the right of D?
(A) B
(B) E
(C) F
(D) A
24. How many persons sit between C and E?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) One
25. Which person sits third from the right?
(A) B
(B) D
(C) E
(D) A
26. Which pair sits adjacent to each other?
(A) C and B
(B) A and D
(C) D and E
(D) B and F
27. Who sits exactly between A and E?
(A) B and D
(B) C and B
(C) D and F
(D) A and B
28. A person walks 5 km north, turns right and walks 3 km, again turns right and walks 5 km. How far is he from the starting point?
(A) 3 km
(B) 5 km
(C) 8 km
(D) 13 km
29. A is the brother of B. B is the mother of C. D is the father of B. How is D related to C?
(A) Father
(B) Grandfather
(C) Uncle
(D) Brother
30. If in a code, DELHI is written as EFMIJ, how will HISAR be written using the same pattern?
(A) IJTBS
(B) GHRZQ
(C) IJUBS
(D) HJTBR
31. Under the Sale of Goods Act, a condition is:
(A) a collateral stipulation only.
(B) a stipulation essential to the main purpose of the contract.
(C) a stipulation whose breach never affects the buyer’s remedies.
(D) a term dealing only with mode of payment.
32. A warranty is ordinarily:
(A) the same as transfer of ownership.
(B) an essential term breach of which always permits rejection.
(C) a condition relating to title in every sale.
(D) a stipulation collateral to the main purpose, breach of which gives rise to a claim for damages.
33. Where the buyer waives a condition, the breach may be treated as:
(A) forgery.
(B) breach of warranty.
(C) extortion.
(D) automatic dissolution of firm.
34. There is an implied condition that the seller has:
(A) a right to sell the goods.
(B) a right to avoid all taxes.
(C) no duty regarding title.
(D) a right to imprison the buyer.
35. Goods sold by description must:
(A) correspond only with the sample and not with description.
(B) be accepted if they are commercially similar though different in description.
(C) correspond with the description.
(D) be accepted even if entirely different.
36. Where sale is by sample as well as description, the goods must:
(A) be accepted if they correspond with sample only.
(B) correspond with neither.
(C) be accepted if price is paid.
(D) correspond with both sample and description.
37. The doctrine of caveat emptor means:
(A) contract of sale needs no goods.
(B) the seller need not disclose defects known to him in any case.
(C) let the buyer beware, subject to recognised statutory exceptions.
(D) the buyer is bound to accept goods despite breach of express condition.
38. An exception to caveat emptor may arise where:
(A) the buyer relies on the seller’s skill or judgment for a disclosed purpose and statutory conditions are fulfilled.
(B) the shop is crowded.
(C) the buyer merely changes his mind after a reasonable opportunity of inspection.
(D) the goods are cheap.
39. Merchantable quality is relevant where:
(A) goods are gifted without price.
(B) the contract concerns land.
(C) goods are bought by description from a seller dealing in goods of that description.
(D) the buyer is a stranger to the transaction.
40. In sale by sample, there is an implied condition that:
(A) the buyer’s inspection is limited to checking quantity only.
(B) the bulk shall correspond with the sample in quality.
(C) the sample is treated as illustrative and never contractual.
(D) the seller need not produce sample.
41. In sale by sample, the buyer must have:
(A) a right to reject without comparing the bulk with the sample.
(B) an obligation to accept any goods.
(C) no right of inspection.
(D) a reasonable opportunity to compare the bulk with the sample.
42. If goods contain a latent defect not discoverable on reasonable examination in sale by sample, the seller may be liable because:
(A) latent defects are irrelevant if the visible sample appears sound.
(B) all sample sales are void.
(C) the defect must be ignored.
(D) sample sale includes implied condition against such hidden unmerchantable defects.
43. A buyer who has accepted goods may still sue for damages when:
(A) the goods are packed in a box.
(B) there is breach of warranty or condition treated as warranty.
(C) the buyer accepted delivery after notice of the defect but reserved his rights.
(D) all remedies are automatically lost.
44. A stipulation as to time of payment is generally:
(A) irrelevant to price.
(B) not deemed essence unless a different intention appears from contract.
(C) never relevant even if the contract expressly makes it essential.
(D) a statutory condition of title in every sale.
45. A stipulation as to time of delivery may be treated as:
(A) important only if the buyer proves actual physical damage.
(B) relevant only for fixing the mode of payment.
(C) essential depending on terms and nature of contract.
(D) unenforceable unless separately registered.
ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATIONS
1. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.395 concerns order to pay compensation in the judgment context.
2. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.396 is the victim compensation scheme provision.
3. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.397 deals with treatment of victims.
4. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.398 provides for witness protection scheme.
5. Answer: (D)
Explanation: BNSS S.435 relates to abatement of appeals; material witness is covered under S.348.
6. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.419 regulates appeal in case of acquittal.
7. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.427 confers statutory appellate powers after appellate hearing.
8. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.430 deals with suspension of sentence pending appeal and bail.
9. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.438 deals with calling for records for revision.
10. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Revision is supervisory and limited, unlike a full appeal.
11. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BSA S.125 recognises evidence by intelligible writing or signs.
12. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BSA S.126 governs spousal competency and does not impose automatic universal incompetency.
13. Answer: (B)
Explanation: BSA S.128 protects marital communications subject to exceptions.
14. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BSA S.138 makes an accomplice competent, but courts treat such evidence cautiously.
15. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BSA S.137 compels answers while giving statutory protection in respect of such answers.
16. Answer: (A)
Explanation: The architectural styles are correctly matched with their features.
17. Answer: (B)
Explanation: All three are standard features/associations of stupas.
18. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Ajanta, Ellora and Elephanta are correctly matched.
19. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Harappan towns are known for planned layouts and drainage.
20. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Konark Sun Temple is in Odisha, not Haryana.
21. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Garbhagriha is the sanctum of a temple.
22. Answer: (C)
Explanation: All four painting traditions are correctly matched.
23. Answer: (B)
Explanation: E sits immediately to the right of D.
24. Answer: (B)
Explanation: A, B and D sit between C and E.
25. Answer: (B)
Explanation: From the right the order is F, E, D; hence D is third from the right.
26. Answer: (C)
Explanation: D and E sit next to each other.
27. Answer: (A)
Explanation: B and D lie between A and E.
28. Answer: (A)
Explanation: The north-south movements cancel, leaving him 3 km east of the start.
29. Answer: (B)
Explanation: D is B’s father and C’s maternal grandfather.
30. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Each letter is shifted one step forward: H-I, I-J, S-T, A-B, R-S.
31. Answer: (B)
Explanation: A condition is essential to the main purpose.
32. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Breach of warranty generally gives damages, not rejection.
33. Answer: (B)
Explanation: A condition may be waived or treated as warranty in specified cases.
34. Answer: (A)
Explanation: The seller’s right to sell is an implied condition.
35. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Sale by description carries an implied condition of correspondence.
36. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Both sample and description must be satisfied.
37. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Caveat emptor is subject to exceptions.
38. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Reliance on seller’s skill/judgment may create implied condition of fitness.
39. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Sale by description from a dealer carries implied condition as to merchantable quality, subject to law.
40. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Bulk must match the sample.
41. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Reasonable opportunity to compare is recognised.
42. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Latent defects affecting merchantability may breach implied conditions.
43. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Breach of warranty permits damages.
44. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Time of payment is not generally essence unless intended.
45. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Time of delivery can be essential depending on contract.