1. Under BNS S.315, dishonest misappropriation of property possessed by a deceased person at the time of death is aggravated because:
(A) the property is taken before it reaches the person legally entitled to it.
(B) the property is immovable.
(C) the act is committed only by a public servant.
(D) actual violence is required in every case.
2. Which offence under BNS is most directly concerned with dishonest or fraudulent removal or concealment of property to prevent distribution among creditors?
(A) S.320
(B) S.329
(C) S.335
(D) S.356
3. BNS S.324 defines mischief in terms of:
(A) intention or knowledge of causing wrongful loss or damage by destruction or harmful change to property.
(B) dishonest inducement at inception of a contract.
(C) public nuisance caused by noise.
(D) mere refusal to repay a debt.
4. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(A) BNS S.325 — Mischief by killing or maiming animal.
(B) BNS S.325 — Cheating by personation.
(C) BNS S.325 — Snatching.
(D) BNS S.325 — Defamation.
5. Under BNS S.329, criminal trespass requires entry into or remaining on property with intent to commit an offence or to:
(A) intimidate, insult or annoy the person in possession.
(B) enforce every civil claim.
(C) demand specific performance.
(D) create public nuisance in every case.
6. Which statement about BNS S.330 is correct?
(A) It deals with house-trespass and house-breaking, not every entry on open land.
(B) It applies only to movable property.
(C) It is identical to cheating.
(D) It requires five or more persons.
7. BNS S.334 is most directly attracted when a person dishonestly or with intent to commit mischief:
(A) breaks open or unfastens a closed receptacle containing or believed to contain property.
(B) signs a forged valuable security.
(C) publishes a defamatory statement.
(D) disturbs a religious assembly.
8. Under BNSS S.435, abatement of appeals must be considered with reference to:
(A) death of the accused/appellant and statutory exceptions such as fine-related appeals.
(B) every case of compromise between parties.
(C) withdrawal of complaint in summons case only.
(D) dismissal of revision for limitation.
9. Under BNSS S.442, the High Court’s revisional powers are subject to statutory limits. Which statement is correct?
(A) It may exercise revisional powers to correct illegality, impropriety or jurisdictional error within the statute.
(B) It always acts as a second trial court.
(C) It cannot examine correctness of any finding.
(D) It can compound offences not compoundable by law.
10. Which provision is correctly paired with transfer of criminal cases?
(A) BNSS S.446 — Power of Supreme Court to transfer cases and appeals.
(B) BNSS S.446 — Victim compensation scheme.
(C) BNSS S.446 — Witness protection scheme.
(D) BNSS S.446 — Examination of accused.
11. Under BNSS S.453, execution of a death sentence is linked with:
(A) execution of order passed under the High Court’s confirmation provision.
(B) trial court warrant immediately after sessions judgment without confirmation.
(C) police approval of sentence.
(D) application for compounding.
12. Under BNSS S.468, set-off is available in relation to:
(A) period of detention undergone by the accused against sentence of imprisonment.
(B) payment of compensation against civil damages only.
(C) default sentence against future offences.
(D) bail bond amount against fine in every case.
13. Under BSA S.130, official communications are protected when disclosure would be against:
(A) public interest as contemplated by the statutory privilege.
(B) convenience of a private complainant.
(C) the desire of any witness to avoid cross-examination.
(D) the accused’s request for adjournment.
14. Under BSA S.134, confidential communications with legal advisers are protected primarily to safeguard:
(A) legal professional confidence subject to statutory limits.
(B) all communications made to any public servant.
(C) all business negotiations.
(D) every confession made to a friend.
15. Under BSA S.136, where a person in possession of a document could refuse production, another person possessing it on his behalf:
(A) may also claim the statutory protection in appropriate cases.
(B) must always produce it irrespective of privilege.
(C) loses all privilege because possession is indirect.
(D) can rely only on oral evidence.
16. Consider the following pairs of sportspersons and sports:
1. Neeraj Chopra — Javelin throw
2. Manu Bhaker — Shooting
3. Sakshi Malik — Wrestling
4. Yuzvendra Chahal — Kabaddi
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 3 and 4 only
17. Which of the following sportspersons from/associated with Haryana have won Olympic medals for India?
1. Neeraj Chopra
2. Sakshi Malik
3. Vijender Singh
4. Manu Bhaker
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 3 and 4 only
18. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List I
A. Neeraj Chopra
B. Sakshi Malik
C. Vijender Singh
D. Manu Bhaker
List II
1. Shooting
2. Wrestling
3. Javelin throw
4. Boxing
Code:
(A) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(B) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
(C) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
(D) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
19. Consider the following statements on Haryana sports infrastructure and awards:
1. Tau Devi Lal Sports Complex is associated with Panchkula.
2. Bhim Award is a Haryana sports award for sportspersons.
3. Haryana’s sports ecosystem is strongly associated with wrestling, boxing, shooting and athletics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 only
20. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
(A) Tau Devi Lal Sports Complex — Panchkula
(B) Nahar Singh Stadium — Faridabad
(C) Ch. Bansi Lal Cricket Stadium — Lahli/Rohtak
(D) Eden Gardens — Gurugram
21. Haryana’s high representation in Indian sports is most closely linked with:
(A) sailing, polo and winter sports as the dominant State disciplines.
(B) wrestling akharas, boxing, shooting ranges, athletics and rural sporting culture.
(C) beach volleyball alone.
(D) absence of State-level sports awards.
22. Consider the following statements:
1. Neeraj Chopra won Olympic gold in javelin throw.
2. Sakshi Malik won an Olympic medal in wrestling.
3. Manu Bhaker is associated with shooting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 3 only
23. A and B together can complete a work in 12 days. A alone can complete it in 20 days. In how many days can B alone complete the work?
(A) 24 days
(B) 30 days
(C) 36 days
(D) 40 days
24. A train running at 72 km/h crosses a pole in 15 seconds. What is the length of the train?
(A) 200 m
(B) 250 m
(C) 300 m
(D) 320 m
25. A man covers half of a journey at 40 km/h and the remaining half at 60 km/h. His average speed for the whole journey is:
(A) 45 km/h
(B) 48 km/h
(C) 50 km/h
(D) 52 km/h
26. If 12 men complete a work in 18 days, how many men will be required to complete the same work in 12 days, assuming equal efficiency?
(A) 16
(B) 18
(C) 20
(D) 24
27. A boat goes 24 km downstream in 3 hours and 24 km upstream in 6 hours. What is the speed of the stream?
(A) 1 km/h
(B) 2 km/h
(C) 3 km/h
(D) 4 km/h
28. A can do a work in 15 days and B can do it in 30 days. They work together for 5 days. What fraction of the work is left?
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/3
(C) 1/2
(D) 2/3
29. A cyclist travels 30 km at 15 km/h and returns at 10 km/h. What is the average speed for the whole journey?
(A) 11 km/h
(B) 12 km/h
(C) 12.5 km/h
(D) 13 km/h
30. Two pipes fill a tank in 10 hours and 15 hours respectively. A third pipe empties it in 30 hours. If all three are opened together, the tank will be filled in:
(A) 5 hours
(B) 6 hours
(C) 7.5 hours
(D) 10 hours
31. Under the Sale of Goods Act, property in goods means:
(A) right to sue for damages only.
(B) right to immediate possession without ownership.
(C) mere custody of goods.
(D) ownership in goods.
32. Property in specific goods passes when:
(A) the buyer obtains a delivery challan.
(B) the parties intend it to pass, as gathered from contract, conduct and circumstances.
(C) the invoice describes the goods generally.
(D) the buyer has paid the whole price.
33. In unascertained goods, property passes only when:
(A) goods are ascertained and appropriated according to law.
(B) the contract is oral.
(C) the seller changes address.
(D) the buyer pays earnest money before appropriation.
34. Nemo dat quod non habet means:
(A) delivery is unnecessary.
(B) a buyer from a non-owner gets title whenever he pays price in good faith.
(C) no one can transfer a better title than he himself has, subject to exceptions.
(D) a buyer from a non-owner can never get title even under statutory exceptions.
35. Delivery of goods may be:
(A) only by delivery order signed before a notary.
(B) only through a common carrier appointed by Court.
(C) actual, symbolic or constructive as recognised by law.
(D) only by actual delivery, not by symbolic or constructive delivery.
36. An unpaid seller includes a seller:
(A) who sold immovable property.
(B) to whom the whole price has not been paid or tendered.
(C) who has delivered goods free of cost.
(D) who dislikes the buyer.
37. An unpaid seller’s lien is the right to:
(A) arrest the buyer.
(B) retain possession of goods until payment in legally recognised cases.
(C) sell the buyer’s house.
(D) cancel all other contracts of the buyer.
38. Stoppage in transit is available to an unpaid seller when:
(A) the buyer becomes insolvent and goods are in transit.
(B) the buyer is late for a meeting.
(C) the seller dislikes transport charges.
(D) goods have become immovable land.
39. Right of resale by unpaid seller may arise:
(A) in circumstances permitted by the Act, such as perishable goods or after notice where required.
(B) only after the buyer refuses to pay despite a decree.
(C) only after obtaining permission from the Registrar of Firms.
(D) whenever price is unpaid, without notice or other statutory condition.
40. Risk in goods generally follows:
(A) the buyer’s address.
(B) property, unless otherwise agreed.
(C) the place where goods are stored.
(D) the seller’s age.
41. A mercantile agent may pass good title to a buyer where:
(A) statutory conditions protecting a bona fide buyer are satisfied.
(B) no consent is ever relevant.
(C) he is merely standing near goods.
(D) the owner never consented to possession in any form.
42. Sale by a person in possession under a voidable contract may pass good title if:
(A) the buyer knows of fraud.
(B) the goods are immovable.
(C) the contract is already rescinded.
(D) the contract has not been rescinded and the buyer acts in good faith without notice of defect.
43. Where seller remains in possession after sale, a later buyer may get protection if:
(A) the seller has no goods.
(B) the transaction concerns land.
(C) statutory conditions of good faith and lack of notice are fulfilled.
(D) he knows the first sale and still buys.
44. Where buyer obtains possession with seller’s consent before property passes, a sub-buyer may be protected if:
(A) statutory conditions are satisfied.
(B) all transactions are void.
(C) goods are perishable only.
(D) notice is relevant only when the property is recovered from the complainant.
45. An unpaid seller’s remedies are best classified as:
(A) only a lien and no personal action for price.
(B) only remedies before a consumer forum.
(C) rights against goods and rights against the buyer personally.
(D) only rights against carrier and warehouseman.
ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATIONS
1. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.315 deals with misappropriation of property of a deceased before it reaches the lawful possessor.
2. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.320 addresses fraudulent removal or concealment to prevent distribution among creditors.
3. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.324 focuses on wrongful loss or damage to property.
4. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.325 concerns mischief by killing or maiming an animal.
5. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.329 includes intent to intimidate, insult or annoy the person in possession.
6. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.330 concerns house-trespass and house-breaking.
7. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.334 deals with dishonestly breaking open receptacles containing property.
8. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.435 deals with abatement of appeals and its exceptions.
9. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.442 confers High Court revisional power within statutory boundaries.
10. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.446 deals with Supreme Court’s power to transfer cases and appeals.
11. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.453 concerns execution after confirmation-related order.
12. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.468 provides for set-off of pre-conviction detention against imprisonment.
13. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BSA S.130 concerns privilege of official communications based on public interest.
14. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BSA S.134 protects confidential legal-advice communications.
15. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BSA S.136 extends the protection in specified document-production situations.
16. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Neeraj, Manu and Sakshi are correctly matched; Yuzvendra Chahal is a cricketer.
17. Answer: (C)
Explanation: All four listed sportspersons have won Olympic medals for India.
18. Answer: (A)
Explanation: The sportspersons are correctly matched with their sports.
19. Answer: (B)
Explanation: All three statements correctly reflect Haryana sports and infrastructure.
20. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Eden Gardens is in Kolkata, not Gurugram.
21. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Haryana’s sports profile is strongly linked with these sports and grassroots culture.
22. Answer: (C)
Explanation: All three statements are correct.
23. Answer: (B)
Explanation: B’s work rate is 1/12 − 1/20 = 1/30.
24. Answer: (C)
Explanation: 72 km/h = 20 m/s; length = 20 × 15 = 300 m.
25. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Average speed for equal distances is 2ab/(a+b) = 48 km/h.
26. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Men × days = 12 × 18 = 216; required men = 216/12 = 18.
27. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Downstream speed is 8 km/h and upstream speed is 4 km/h; stream speed = 2 km/h.
28. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Combined rate is 1/15 + 1/30 = 1/10; in 5 days half the work is done.
29. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Average speed for equal distances at 15 and 10 km/h is 12 km/h.
30. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Net rate is 1/10 + 1/15 − 1/30 = 1/6.
31. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Property means ownership.
32. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Intention governs passing of property in specific goods.
33. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Ascertainment/appropriation is necessary.
34. Answer: (C)
Explanation: The nemo dat rule is subject to statutory exceptions.
35. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Delivery can take various recognised forms.
36. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Unpaid seller status is linked with unpaid price.
37. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Lien allows retention of goods.
38. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Insolvency of buyer and goods in transit are key.
39. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Resale is regulated by statute.
40. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Risk ordinarily follows ownership, subject to agreement.
41. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Exceptions protect bona fide purchasers in certain mercantile transactions.
42. Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Act recognises this exception to nemo dat.
43. Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Act protects certain bona fide buyers.
44. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Buyer in possession is another exception to nemo dat.
45. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Unpaid seller has remedies against goods and buyer personally.