1. Under BNS S.335, making a false document may occur when a person dishonestly or fraudulently makes or signs a document intending it to be believed that it was made:
(A) by or under authority of a person by whom he knows it was not made.
(B) only on a non-judicial stamp paper.
(C) only before a public servant.
(D) only after actual financial loss is proved.
2. Forgery under BNS S.336 is based on making a false document or electronic record with the requisite intent. Which intent is relevant?
(A) Causing damage or injury, supporting a claim/title, causing parting with property, entering contract, or committing fraud.
(B) Merely writing a document in poor handwriting.
(C) Signing one’s own name on a valid receipt.
(D) Correcting an arithmetical mistake with authority.
3. Which BNS provision is specifically concerned with forgery of a Court record, public register or similar public record?
(A) S.337
(B) S.338
(C) S.344
(D) S.351
4. BNS S.338 is more serious than ordinary forgery because it concerns documents such as:
(A) valuable security, will or authority to adopt.
(B) a private invitation card without legal consequence.
(C) a daily newspaper report.
(D) an unsigned draft note.
5. Under BNS S.340, using a forged document or electronic record as genuine requires:
(A) knowledge or reason to believe that it is forged, along with use as genuine.
(B) proof that the accused personally wrote every word of the document.
(C) production of the original document in a civil suit only.
(D) proof that the document concerns immovable property.
6. Under BNS S.344, falsification of accounts is most closely connected with:
(A) wilful and fraudulent alteration, destruction, mutilation or falsification of books/electronic records/accounts by a clerk, officer or servant.
(B) negligent omission to sign a vakalatnama.
(C) mistake in mental arithmetic during oral evidence.
(D) every unpaid loan transaction.
7. Which matching is correct under BNS property-mark provisions?
(A) S.345 — Property mark; S.347 — Counterfeiting a property mark.
(B) S.345 — Defamation; S.347 — Criminal intimidation.
(C) S.345 — Theft; S.347 — Dacoity.
(D) S.345 — Quarantine; S.347 — Obscenity.
8. Under BNS S.351, criminal intimidation requires threat with intent to cause alarm or to cause a person to do/omit an act. Which threat is most relevant?
(A) Threat of injury to person, reputation or property as contemplated by the section.
(B) Mere refusal to enter into a contract.
(C) Mere filing of a lawful complaint.
(D) Mere insistence on cross-examination.
9. BNS S.352 is concerned with intentional insult with intent or knowledge that such provocation will likely cause:
(A) breach of peace or commission of an offence.
(B) transfer of property by succession.
(C) compounding of offence.
(D) remission of sentence.
10. Under BNS S.356, defamation is subject to:
(A) statutory explanations and exceptions, so every adverse statement is not automatically defamation.
(B) automatic guilt whenever reputation is mentioned.
(C) proof of physical hurt in every case.
(D) five or more persons acting conjointly.
11. Under BNSS S.478, a person accused of a bailable offence who is prepared to give bail must ordinarily be:
(A) released on bail subject to the statutory terms.
(B) remanded till conclusion of trial as a matter of rule.
(C) released only after complainant’s consent.
(D) denied bail because all arrests are non-bailable.
12. BNSS S.479 deals with maximum period for which an under-trial prisoner can be detained. The provision is linked with:
(A) statutory release on bond/bail after detention reaches the prescribed fraction of maximum imprisonment, subject to exceptions.
(B) automatic acquittal after one adjournment.
(C) compounding of all non-bailable offences.
(D) transfer of cases from Magistrate to Sessions Court.
13. BNSS S.480 on non-bailable offences requires the Court to consider bail within:
(A) the statutory restrictions and judicial discretion applicable to non-bailable offences.
(B) an absolute rule that bail must always be refused.
(C) an absolute rule that bail must always be granted.
(D) police approval as the sole condition.
14. Under BSA S.146, leading questions are generally:
(A) restricted in examination-in-chief except with Court permission, but allowed in cross-examination subject to control.
(B) compulsory in every examination-in-chief.
(C) prohibited in cross-examination.
(D) treated as confessions of the witness.
15. Under BSA S.158, impeaching credit of a witness may be done only by:
(A) methods permitted by law, such as evidence affecting credibility where admissible.
(B) public rumours about the witness.
(C) threatening the witness outside Court.
(D) refusing all cross-examination.
16. Consider the following statements regarding oceans:
1. The Pacific Ocean is the largest ocean.
2. The Mariana Trench is located in the Pacific Ocean.
3. The Arctic Ocean is larger than the Atlantic Ocean.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
17. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List I
A. Sahara
B. Gobi
C. Atacama
D. Great Victoria
List II
1. South America
2. Australia
3. North Africa
4. Asia
Code:
(A) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(B) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(C) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(D) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
18. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
1. Andes — South America
2. Atlas — North-western Africa
3. Alps — Europe
4. Rockies — Australia
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
19. The Tibetan Plateau is often called the “Roof of the World” mainly because:
(A) it lies wholly within the tropical rainforest belt.
(B) it is a high and extensive plateau in Asia.
(C) it is a coral island group.
(D) it is a desert below sea level.
20. Consider the following statements regarding continents:
1. The Equator passes through Africa and South America.
2. Antarctica has no permanent native human population.
3. Europe is the largest continent by area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
21. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?
(A) Mount Kilimanjaro — Africa
(B) Mount Elbrus — Europe
(C) Mount Aconcagua — South America
(D) Mount Kosciuszko — Antarctica
22. Consider the following pairs:
1. Deccan Plateau — India
2. Colorado Plateau — United States
3. Kimberley Plateau — Australia
4. Meseta Plateau — Spain
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 3 and 4 only
23. The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2024 was conferred on which of the following?
1. Gukesh D
2. Harmanpreet Singh
3. Praveen Kumar
4. Manu Bhaker
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
24. ICC Champions Trophy 2025 was won by:
(A) India
(B) Australia
(C) New Zealand
(D) South Africa
25. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(A) Manu Bhaker — Shooting
(B) Gukesh D — Badminton
(C) Harmanpreet Singh — Chess
(D) Praveen Kumar — Cricket
26. The 2025 Academy Award for Best Picture was won by:
(A) Oppenheimer
(B) Anora
(C) Dune: Part Two
(D) The Brutalist
27. Consider the following statements regarding National Sports Awards 2024:
1. Manu Bhaker was among the Khel Ratna awardees.
2. Harmanpreet Singh was among the Khel Ratna awardees.
3. Gukesh D was excluded from the Khel Ratna list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
28. Which one of the following correctly matches a sportsperson with the discipline listed in National Sports Awards 2024?
(A) Gukesh D — Chess
(B) Manu Bhaker — Wrestling
(C) Harmanpreet Singh — Athletics
(D) Praveen Kumar — Hockey
29. Which statement regarding awards and honours is correct?
(A) The Khel Ratna is India’s highest sporting honour.
(B) The Nobel Prize is awarded by the International Cricket Council.
(C) The Booker Prize is a military gallantry award.
(D) The Padma awards are decided by State sports associations alone.
30. In current sports context, a question asking “India defeated New Zealand in the final of ICC Champions Trophy 2025” points to which tournament result?
(A) India’s Champions Trophy title victory.
(B) India’s FIFA World Cup victory.
(C) India’s Hockey World Cup defeat.
(D) India’s Davis Cup title.
31. Under Hindu marriage law, a valid marriage requires compliance with:
(A) statutory conditions and ceremonies recognised by law/custom.
(B) only exchange of gifts.
(C) only registration of a private family settlement.
(D) only oral promise before friends.
32. A marriage within prohibited degrees is void unless:
(A) a valid custom or usage permits it.
(B) one party is employed.
(C) the parties are wealthy.
(D) the marriage is photographed.
33. A bigamous Hindu marriage solemnised during the lifetime of a living spouse is:
(A) void under the statutory scheme.
(B) only voidable at the option of husband.
(C) valid if customary consent exists, even where statutory conditions are absent.
(D) a partnership contract.
34. A voidable marriage differs from a void marriage because:
(A) it cannot be challenged by any party.
(B) it remains valid until annulled by a competent decree on statutory grounds.
(C) it can be granted only after a decree of judicial separation.
(D) it is void from the beginning in all situations.
35. Judicial separation under Hindu law permits:
(A) automatic dissolution of marriage without decree.
(B) automatic remarriage without divorce.
(C) suspension of marital cohabitation without immediately dissolving marriage.
(D) transfer of all property to the State.
36. Divorce under Hindu marriage law can be granted only on:
(A) mere dislike without legal ground.
(B) oral declaration before relatives only.
(C) permission of the local marriage registrar in every case.
(D) statutory grounds.
37. Maintenance during matrimonial proceedings is intended to:
(A) grant relief only after a separate criminal complaint is decided.
(B) support a spouse who lacks independent sufficient income during proceedings, subject to law.
(C) punish every respondent automatically.
(D) replace all property rights.
38. Permanent alimony may be ordered:
(A) at or after decree, subject to statutory conditions.
(B) only in proceedings after divorce has already been granted.
(C) only during the period between engagement and marriage.
(D) only by the registrar without judicial order.
39. A Hindu adoption must satisfy:
(A) only payment of money.
(B) mere custody without statutory compliance.
(C) capacity, consent and conditions prescribed by law.
(D) only registration of a sale deed.
40. A person already having a Hindu son, son’s son or son’s son’s son generally cannot adopt:
(A) a daughter in every situation.
(B) a child with consent.
(C) a son, subject to the statutory rule.
(D) any child under any law.
41. A valid adoption has the effect of:
(A) creating only temporary guardianship.
(B) making the child a tenant.
(C) creating a sale of goods.
(D) transferring the adopted child into the adoptive family for legal purposes, subject to statutory exceptions.
42. Consent of wife in adoption by a Hindu male is required unless:
(A) she has completely and finally renounced the world, ceased to be Hindu, or been declared of unsound mind, as law provides.
(B) the adopter has a higher income than the natural parents.
(C) the child is wealthy.
(D) she dislikes the child.
43. A female Hindu may adopt when:
(A) the child’s school record is transferred to the adoptive parent.
(B) she has legal capacity under the statute.
(C) the adoption is announced before village elders only.
(D) she is merely a witness to adoption.
44. A child to be adopted must satisfy:
(A) statutory conditions regarding age, marital status and prior adoption, unless custom permits otherwise where relevant.
(B) only school admission.
(C) only physical height requirement.
(D) only handwriting test.
45. Custom in Hindu law is accepted only when:
(A) it is casually alleged.
(B) it is convenient in one case.
(C) it is stated in a private letter without proof of ceremony or compliance.
(D) it is proved to be certain, ancient, reasonable and not opposed to law/public policy.
ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATIONS
1. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.335 covers dishonest or fraudulent making/signing with false attribution of authority.
2. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.336 links forgery with false document and specified dishonest/fraudulent intent.
3. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.337 addresses forgery of Court record or public register.
4. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.338 covers forgery of valuable security, will and similar documents.
5. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.340 punishes use as genuine with knowledge or reason to believe forgery.
6. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.344 deals with fraudulent falsification of accounts.
7. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.345 defines property mark and S.347 deals with counterfeiting it.
8. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.351 covers threats of injury with the statutory intent.
9. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.352 focuses on insult intended or likely to provoke breach of peace/offence.
10. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNS S.356 includes explanations and exceptions to defamation.
11. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.478 embodies the rule of bail in bailable cases.
12. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.479 limits under-trial detention subject to its statutory conditions and exceptions.
13. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BNSS S.480 governs bail in non-bailable offences through statutory discretion and restrictions.
14. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BSA S.146 regulates leading questions, especially between chief and cross-examination.
15. Answer: (A)
Explanation: BSA S.158 permits impeachment of credit only through lawful modes.
16. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Pacific is the largest ocean and Mariana Trench is in the Pacific; Arctic is not larger than the Atlantic.
17. Answer: (A)
Explanation: The deserts are correctly matched with their regions.
18. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Andes, Atlas and Alps are correctly matched; Rockies are in North America.
19. Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Tibetan Plateau is a high and extensive Asian plateau.
20. Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Equator crosses Africa and South America; Antarctica lacks permanent native population.
21. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Mount Kosciuszko is associated with Australia, not Antarctica.
22. Answer: (B)
Explanation: All four plateaus are correctly matched.
23. Answer: (D)
Explanation: All four were Khel Ratna awardees for 2024.
24. Answer: (A)
Explanation: India won the ICC Champions Trophy 2025.
25. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Manu Bhaker is associated with shooting.
26. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Anora won Best Picture at the 2025 Academy Awards.
27. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Manu Bhaker and Harmanpreet Singh were awardees; Gukesh D was also included, so statement 3 is false.
28. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Gukesh D is associated with chess.
29. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Khel Ratna is India’s highest sporting honour.
30. Answer: (A)
Explanation: It refers to India’s ICC Champions Trophy 2025 title win.
31. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Validity depends on statutory conditions and recognised ceremonies/custom.
32. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Custom may save a prohibited-degree marriage if legally recognised.
33. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Monogamy is a condition of valid Hindu marriage.
34. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Voidable marriage requires annulment by decree.
35. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Judicial separation suspends obligation to cohabit; marriage continues.
36. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Divorce is governed by statutory grounds.
37. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Maintenance pendente lite protects a needy spouse during proceedings.
38. Answer: (A)
Explanation: Permanent alimony is a matrimonial relief.
39. Answer: (C)
Explanation: Adoption must comply with statutory conditions.
40. Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Act restricts adoption of a son where specified male issue exists.
41. Answer: (D)
Explanation: Adoption changes legal family relationship.
42. Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Act specifies exceptions to wife’s consent.
43. Answer: (B)
Explanation: Female capacity to adopt is statutory.
44. Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Act prescribes conditions for the child.
45. Answer: (D)
Explanation: A valid custom must be pleaded and proved with strict requirements.