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Q.1. Which one of the following decisions is responsible for the Parliament passing the Constitution (24th Amendment ) Act, 1971?
(a) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(b) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(c) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(d) Minarva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India
Q.2. Which one of the following is not a function of the Union Public Service Commission?
(a) It conducts examinations for the appointments to the service of the Union.
(b) It shall be consulted on all disciplinary matters affecting a person serving the Government of India
(c) It shall be consulted on all disciplinary matters affecting a person serving the Government of India
(d) It shall be consulted cases as regards the reservation of posts for backward classes, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
Q.3. Which one of the following is not a salient feature of the Constitution of India?
(a) Written Constitution and supremacy of the Constitution
(b) Quasi-federal
(c) Committed judiciary
(d) Distribution of Powers
Q.4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
A. Republic 1. Head of the State is not a hereditary monarch
B. Secular 2. State does not recognise any religion as a state religion
C. Democracy 3. A form of government that gets its authority from the will of the people
Codes:
. A B C
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 1 3 2
(c) 2 3 1
(d) 3 2 1
Q.5. Preamble to the constitution of India_____?
(a) is not a part of the Constitution
(b) indicates the objectives to be achieved
(c) indicates the source from which the Constitution derives its authority
(d) is a source of authority of the Constitution of India
Q.6. The Directive Principles of state policy are fundamental for the________?
(a) up liftment of backward classes
(b) protection of individual rights
(c) administration of justice
(d) governance of state
Q.7. In which one of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that harmony and balance between the fundamental rights and the directive principals of State Policy is basic feature of the constitution of India?
(a) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(b) Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India
(c) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(d) Waman Rao v. Union of India
Q.8. Match List-I (Article No.) with List-II (Matter dealt with) and select the correct answer from the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
A. 39 A 1. Living wages for workers
B. 43 2. Uniform Civil Code
C. 44 3. Separation of judiciary
D. 50 4. Free legal aid
Codes:
. A B C D
(a) 1 4 2 3
(b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 1 4 3 2
Q.9. Assertion (A): The Supreme Court of India is bound by its own judgements.
Reason (R): The highest courts bind all subordinate courts by its own judgements.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q.10. Assertion (A): The entries in the three legislative list are not always set out with scientific precision.
Reason (R): The entries are not powers but are only fields of legislation.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answers with Explanations
1. Correct Answer: B
Explanation- In order to remove difficulties created by the decision of Supreme Court in GolakNath’s case Parliament enacted the (24th Amendment Act. 1971).The 24th amendment not only restored the amending power of the Parliament but also extended its scope. It has added a new clause (4) to article 13 which provides that, nothing in this Article shall apply to any amendment of this constitution made under Article 368. It substituted a new marginal heading to Article 368 in place of old heading. Hence Option B is correct.
2. Correct Answer: D
Explanation- Article 15 clause (4) empowered the state to make special provisions for the advancement of any socially or educationally back warded classes of citizens or for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. Hence Option D is correct.
3. Correct Answer: A
Explanation- Followings are the salient features .of the constitution of India:
Lengthiest constitution of the world
Parliamentary form of Government.
Unique blend of rigidity and flexibility.
Fundamental rights.
Directive Principles of State Policy,
A federation with strong centralising tendency Adult suffrage.
An Independent judiciary.
A secular state.
Single citizenship.
Fundamental duties.
Hence Option A is correct.
4. Correct Answer: A
Explanation- All the pairs are correctly matched.
The term republic signifies that there Shall be an elected head of the state who will be the chief executive head. A Secular state is that which has no religion of its own as recognised religion of state. Democracy means a form of government which gets its authority from the will of the people. Hence Option A is correct.
5. Correct Answer: B
Explanation- The Preamble to constitution sets out the main objectives which the Constitution is intended to achieve. It express what we had thought or dreamt for so ‘long. The constitution makers gave to the preamble the place of pride. In re Berubari case, the Supreme Court has said that the Preamble to the Constitution is a key to open the mind of makers and shows the general purpose for which they made the several provisions in the Constitution. Hence Option B is correct.
6. Correct Answer: B
Explanation- In Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India, Supreme Court has held that the following are the basic features of the Constitution
1.limited power of Parliament to amend the Constitution.
2.harmony and balance between fundamental rights and directive principles.
3.fundamental rights in certain cases.
4.power of judicial review in certain cases.
Hence Option B is correct.
7. Correct Answer: B
Explanation- In Minerva Mills -Ltd. v. Union of India (AIR 1980 SC 1789) it was held that the harmony and balance between fundamental right and directive principles is an essential feature of the basic structure of the Constitution. Hence Option B is correct.
8. Correct Answer: C
Explanation- Correct matching will be as following :
A.39 A 4 . Free legal aid
B.43 1 . Living wages for workers
C.44 2 .Uniform Civil Code
D.50 3 . Separation of
Article 39 A : Equal justice and free legal aid.
Article 43 : Living wages etc. for workers.
Article 44 : Uniform Civil Code for the citizens throughout the territory of India.
Article 50: Separation of Judiciary from the executive in the public services of the state.
Hence Option C is correct.
9. Correct Answer: D
Explanation- ‘A’ is not true but ‘R’ is true because:
Article 141 provides that law declared by Supreme Court will be binding on all courts in India.
The expression ‘all courts in the territory of India’ clearly means court other than the Supreme Court.
Thus, the Supreme Court is not bound by its own decisions and may in proper case reverse its previous decisions. Hence Option D is correct.
10. Correct Answer: B
Explanation- Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are individually true and ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A’,
Hence option B is correct.